What distinguishes adaptive immunity from innate immunity?
- A. Rapid response and non-specificity
- B. Memory and high antigen specificity
- C. Activation by physical barriers
- D. Constant activity without antigen exposure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because adaptive immunity involves memory, meaning the immune system can recognize and respond more effectively to specific antigens upon subsequent exposure. This high antigen specificity allows for tailored responses to different pathogens. In contrast, innate immunity lacks memory and specificity, providing only a rapid but non-specific response to a wide range of pathogens. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not adequately capture the key distinguishing features of adaptive immunity.
You may also like to solve these questions
Tolerogenic dendritic cells
- A. Induce T cell unresponsiveness
- B. Do not secrete IL-12
- C. Express high levels of co-stimulatory molecules
- D. Have recognized PAMPs
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I apologize, but it seems like there was a mistake in the question. The correct answer is not provided as choice "E." Could you please provide the correct choices for the question so I can provide you with the detailed explanation you are looking for?
You have developed a nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements for a hospitalized patient with AIDS who has anorexia and nausea. Which of these nursing actions is most appropriate to delegate to an LPN who is providing care to this patient?
- A. Administer oxandrolone (Oxandrin) 5 mg daily in morning.
- B. Provide oral care with a soft toothbrush every 8 hours.
- C. Instruct the patient about a high-calorie,high-protein diet.
- D. Assess the patient for other nutrition risk factors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Providing oral care is a routine task that can be safely delegated to an LPN. Administering medications instructing about diet and assessing nutrition risk factors require more advanced knowledge and skills which are typically within the scope of an RN.
What is the structural composition of an antibody?
- A. Two heavy chains and two light chains
- B. Three heavy chains and one light chain
- C. Two heavy chains and three light chains
- D. Four heavy chains
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two heavy chains and two light chains. Antibodies are composed of two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains. Heavy chains provide structural support and effector functions, while light chains contribute to antigen binding. Choice B is incorrect as antibodies do not have three heavy chains. Choice C is incorrect as antibodies do not have three light chains. Choice D is incorrect as antibodies do not have four heavy chains.
Which of the following enzymes removes 5' phosphate groups thereby preventing or decreasing the self-sealing of restricted plasmid vector molecules?
- A. Calf intestinal phosphatase
- B. Pyrophosphatase
- C. Phosphohydrolase
- D. phosphate exonuclease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Calf intestinal phosphatase. This enzyme removes 5' phosphate groups from DNA molecules, preventing self-ligation of restricted plasmid vectors. This step is crucial in generating linearized vectors for downstream applications. Pyrophosphatase (B) hydrolyzes pyrophosphate bonds, not 5' phosphate groups. Phosphohydrolase (C) is a general term for enzymes that hydrolyze phosphoester bonds, not specific to 5' phosphate removal. Phosphate exonuclease (D) degrades nucleic acids by removing nucleotides from the 3' end, not the 5' phosphate group.
The nurse is performing morning care for a patient who sustained a fractured pelvis and bilateral femur fractures yesterday in a motorcycle collision. The patient complains of shortness of breath. Assessment reveals audible wheezes and oxygen saturation of 76%. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Establish a peripheral intravenous (IV) line.
- B. Inform the charge nurse.
- C. Explain the patient's change in status to his family.
- D. Raise patient to high Fowler position.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The patient complains of shortness of breath and has audible wheezes, indicating potential respiratory distress.
Step 2: Oxygen saturation of 76% is critically low and requires immediate intervention.
Step 3: Raising the patient to a high Fowler position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation.
Step 4: This action takes priority to improve the patient's breathing and oxygen saturation levels.
Summary: A is incorrect as establishing an IV line is not the immediate priority. B is incorrect as informing the charge nurse delays direct patient care. C is incorrect as addressing the family is secondary to addressing the patient's urgent needs.