What is the action of the thiazide diuretic?
- A. Blocks the sodium pump.
- B. Block the chloride pump.
- C. Blocks the carbonic anhydrase pump.
- D. Blocks the potassium pump.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blocks the chloride pump. Thiazide diuretics inhibit the sodium-chloride symporter in the distal convoluted tubule of the nephron, leading to increased excretion of sodium and chloride ions, resulting in diuresis. Choice A is incorrect as thiazides do not block the sodium pump. Choice C is incorrect as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, not thiazides, block the carbonic anhydrase enzyme. Choice D is incorrect as thiazides do not block the potassium pump.
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The nurse is caring for a patient receiving warfarin and notes bruising and petechiae on the patient's extremities. The nurse will request an order for which?
- A. Vitamin K Level.
- B. PTT and aPTT.
- C. International normalized ratio (INR).
- D. Platelet level.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). When a patient on warfarin presents with bruising and petechiae, it suggests potential over-anticoagulation. INR measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy by assessing clotting time. An elevated INR indicates a higher risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. Ordering a Vitamin K level (choice A) is not necessary as the patient is already on warfarin. PTT and aPTT (choice B) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy. Platelet level (choice D) is not indicated for assessing warfarin effects.
What class of antiarrhythmic drugs blocks potassium channels prolonging phase 3 of the action potential and slowing the rate and conduction of the heart?
- A. I.
- B. IV.
- C. III.
- D. II.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Class III. Class III antiarrhythmic drugs block potassium channels, which prolongs phase 3 of the action potential by delaying repolarization. This action results in a longer refractory period, slowing the heart rate and conduction. Option A (Class I) blocks sodium channels, option B (Class IV) blocks calcium channels, and option D (Class II) are beta-blockers that work by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors. These classes do not have a direct effect on potassium channels and do not produce the same effect as Class III drugs.
What concept is considered when generic drugs are substituted for brand-name drugs?
- A. Half Life.
- B. Critical concentration.
- C. Distribution.
- D. Bioavailability.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bioavailability. Bioavailability refers to the extent and rate at which the active ingredient of a drug is absorbed and becomes available at the site of action in the body. When generic drugs are substituted for brand-name drugs, bioavailability is crucial to ensure that the generic drug delivers the same therapeutic effect as the brand-name drug. A higher bioavailability indicates that the generic drug is absorbed efficiently and can produce the desired clinical effect. Half-life (A) is the time required for the concentration of a drug in the body to decrease by half, not directly related to drug substitution. Critical concentration (B) is the minimum concentration of a drug needed to produce a therapeutic effect, not specifically considered in drug substitution. Distribution (C) refers to the process of drug transport within the body, not directly linked to drug substitution.
The nurse discovers a patient receiving warfarin is bleeding. What drug would the nurse prepare to counteract this drug?
- A. Vitamin E.
- B. Protamine Sulfate.
- C. Calcium Gluconate.
- D. Vitamin K.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, an anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps replenish the depleted clotting factors, stopping the bleeding. Other choices are incorrect because: A (Vitamin E) does not directly counteract warfarin's mechanism of action, B (Protamine Sulfate) is used to reverse heparin's effects, not warfarin, and C (Calcium Gluconate) is used for calcium channel blocker toxicity, not warfarin-induced bleeding.
The nurse assisting with Phase 1 drug studies is talking with a woman who asks, 'Why can't I participate in this study?' What would be the nurse's best response?
- A. Women are more prone to adverse effects from medications.
- B. Drugs pose a greater risk to women of reproductive age.
- C. Drugs affect women differently than they affect men.
- D. Drugs are tested only on men because they are stronger.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drugs pose a greater risk to women of reproductive age. This answer is based on the fact that women of reproductive age may be at higher risk when participating in drug studies due to potential harm to a developing fetus. Women's hormonal fluctuations can also affect drug metabolism and response, making them more vulnerable to adverse effects.
Incorrect choices:
A: Women are not inherently more prone to adverse effects; it depends on various factors.
C: While drugs can indeed affect men and women differently, this is not the primary reason for excluding women from studies.
D: Excluding women from drug studies solely because they are 'stronger' is not ethical or scientifically valid.
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