Adaptive Immune System Quizlet

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What is the correct order of steps needed for 2nd generation sequencing?

  • A. DNA fragmentation, DNA isolation, amplification, primer ligation, sequencing
  • B. Amplification, primer ligation, sequencing, DNA fragmentation, DNA isolation
  • C. DNA isolation, DNA fragmentation, primer ligation, amplification, sequencing
  • D. Sequencing, DNA isolation, DNA fragmentation, primer ligation, amplification
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct order of steps for 2nd generation sequencing is C: DNA isolation, DNA fragmentation, primer ligation, amplification, sequencing. Firstly, DNA isolation is crucial to extract the DNA from the sample. Next, DNA fragmentation breaks the DNA into smaller fragments for sequencing. Primer ligation involves attaching primers to the DNA fragments. Amplification is necessary to make multiple copies of the DNA fragments for sequencing. Finally, sequencing is the process of determining the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragments. This order ensures that the DNA is properly prepared and amplified before sequencing, leading to accurate results.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct sequence of steps required for 2nd generation sequencing. Incorrect sequences may lead to errors in the sequencing process and inaccurate results.

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Defensins are

  • A. Released by mast cells during an allergic reaction
  • B. Membrane-disrupting peptides
  • C. Acute phase proteins
  • D. Opsonins
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Membrane-disrupting peptides. Defensins are antimicrobial peptides that disrupt bacterial cell membranes. This disrupts the integrity of the bacterial cell, leading to cell lysis and death. Choice A is incorrect because mast cells release histamines, not defensins. Choice C is incorrect as acute phase proteins are involved in the immune response to inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as opsonins are molecules that enhance phagocytosis of pathogens by immune cells.

What disease is associated with autoantibodies binding to type IV collagen?

  • A. Sarcoidosis
  • B. Goodpasture's syndrome
  • C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  • D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Goodpasture's syndrome. This disease is specifically associated with autoantibodies targeting type IV collagen in the basement membranes of the kidneys and lungs, leading to glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage. Sarcoidosis (A) involves non-caseating granulomas, not collagen autoantibodies. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) (C) is associated with various autoantibodies but not specifically targeting type IV collagen. Rheumatoid arthritis (D) is characterized by autoantibodies against citrullinated peptides and synovial tissue, not type IV collagen.

Compared to naïve T cells, memory T cells:

  • A. Take less time to become activated
  • B. Have less need for costimulation during activation
  • C. Have a much longer life span
  • D. All of the above are correct
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Memory T cells, compared to naïve T cells, take less time to become activated as they have previously encountered the antigen. They also have less need for costimulation during activation due to their enhanced sensitivity. Furthermore, memory T cells have a much longer life span, allowing for a more rapid and robust immune response upon re-exposure to the antigen. Therefore, all of the statements in choices A, B, and C are correct, making option D the correct answer.

An HIV-positive patient who has been started on antiretroviral therapy (ART) is seen in the clinic for follow-up. Which test will be most helpful in determining the response to therapy?

  • A. Lymphocyte count
  • B. ELISA testing
  • C. Western blot analysis
  • D. Viral load testing
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Viral load testing measures the amount of HIV RNA in the blood and is the most direct way to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates that the therapy is working. The other tests provide useful information but are not as directly related to the effectiveness of ART.

In reference to the flow diagram below respond to the following question. The annotation A refers to which sites

  • A. Annealing
  • B. Melting
  • C. Restriction
  • D. RNAse
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restriction. In a flow diagram, the annotation "Restriction" likely indicates the site where a DNA molecule is being cut by a restriction enzyme. This process is essential in molecular biology for DNA manipulation.

Choice A: Annealing involves the process of complementary DNA strands coming together, usually during PCR or hybridization.

Choice B: Melting refers to the separation of double-stranded DNA into single strands, often seen in denaturation steps.

Choice D: RNAse is an enzyme that specifically degrades RNA molecules, not involved in the DNA manipulation processes indicated in the diagram.

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