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What is the medical term for an abnormal decrease in platelets?
- A. Leukopenia
- B. Thrombocytopenia
- C. Anemia
- D. Hemolysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thrombocytopenia, which refers to an abnormal decrease in platelets. Platelets are crucial for blood clotting. Leukopenia (A) is a decrease in white blood cells, not platelets. Anemia (C) is a decrease in red blood cells, not platelets. Hemolysis (D) is the breakdown of red blood cells, not related to platelet count. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it specifically addresses a decrease in platelet count, leading to potential bleeding issues.
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All of the following are true with respect to IgM antibodies EXCEPT which one
- A. they fix complement
- B. they occur on the surface of lymphocytes
- C. they predominate in the primary response to antigen
- D. mediate allergic reactions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. IgM antibodies do not mediate allergic reactions. IgE antibodies are responsible for allergic reactions. IgM antibodies fix complement, occur on the surface of lymphocytes, and predominate in the primary response to antigens. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection, playing a key role in the activation of the complement system. IgM antibodies are mainly found in the blood and lymphatic system, not on the surface of lymphocytes. IgE antibodies are the primary mediators of allergic reactions by triggering the release of histamine and other inflammatory molecules.
The nurse is caring for a patient being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. In reviewing laboratory values, which should the nurse recognize as being diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. C-reactive protein = 12 mg/L
- B. Rheumatoid factor is negative.
- C. White blood cells = 6000/mm3
- D. Antinuclear antibody test is negative.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an elevated C-reactive protein level indicates inflammation, which is a key feature of rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid factor (choice B) is positive in only 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, so a negative result does not rule out the disease. White blood cell count (choice C) and antinuclear antibody test (choice D) are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis. In summary, an elevated C-reactive protein level is a more reliable indicator of the disease compared to the other options provided.
Drugs aimed at blocking the budding of HIV from the host cell
- A. Are RT inhibitors
- B. Should target gp120
- C. Should target HIV co-receptors
- D. Are protease inhibitors
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Are protease inhibitors. Blocking HIV budding involves inhibiting the action of the viral protease enzyme, which is crucial for processing viral proteins into their functional forms. By targeting protease, the virus cannot mature and infect new cells. RT inhibitors (A) target reverse transcriptase, not budding. Targeting gp120 (B) is focused on viral entry, not budding. Targeting HIV co-receptors (C) is aimed at blocking viral entry, not budding.
To which cellular location would you expect NFkB to move in macrophages that have been stimulated with LPS?
- A. To the cytoplasm
- B. To phagosomes
- C. To the nucleus
- D. To the cell membrane
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: To the nucleus. When macrophages are stimulated with LPS, NFkB is activated and translocates to the nucleus. In the nucleus, NFkB regulates the expression of genes involved in the inflammatory response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because NFkB does not primarily move to the cytoplasm, phagosomes, or cell membrane in response to LPS stimulation in macrophages.
A patient prescribed corticosteroids for arthritis is surprised to learn of an immune disorder. What should the nurse explain as the reason for the patient not demonstrating typical signs of immune dysfunction?
- A. The arthritis is masking the normal immune response.
- B. The corticosteroids are causing the thymus gland to malfunction.
- C. The arthritis is interfering with the function of immunoglobulins.
- D. Corticosteroids are impacting normal immune response functioning.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because corticosteroids are known to suppress the immune system by inhibiting the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines and preventing the activation of immune cells. This suppression can lead to a decreased immune response, making it less likely for the patient to exhibit typical signs of immune dysfunction.
A: The arthritis masking the immune response is not a plausible explanation as arthritis does not directly affect immune function.
B: Corticosteroids do not cause the thymus gland to malfunction; they mainly impact immune response at the cellular level.
C: Arthritis affecting immunoglobulin function is not a common mechanism of immune dysfunction in this context.