Nokea
Which of the following would provide an individual with passive immunity to 'Pathogen X'?
- A. Inoculation with a vaccine against Pathogen X
- B. Infection with Pathogen X
- C. Transfer to the individual of serum from someone who has survived an infection with Pathogen X
- D. Living amongst others who have been immunized against Pathogen X
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, transfer of serum from someone who has survived an infection with Pathogen X. This provides passive immunity through the transfer of antibodies from the immune individual to the recipient, offering immediate protection. Choice A involves active immunity through vaccination, which requires the individual's immune response to produce antibodies. Choice B involves active infection, not passive immunity. Choice D mentions living amongst immunized individuals, which may confer herd immunity but does not provide passive immunity on an individual level.
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What is true about OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine)?
- A. Induces mainly an IgG response
- B. Is currently the method of choice because considered safer than IPV (Inactivated Polio Vaccine)
- C. Induces mucosal immunity that blocks enteric infection and viral transmission
- D. All of the above is true about OPV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because OPV induces mucosal immunity that blocks enteric infection and viral transmission. This is crucial in preventing the spread of poliovirus through the fecal-oral route. Choice A is incorrect because OPV primarily induces an IgA response in the mucosal surfaces, not IgG. Choice B is incorrect because while OPV is effective, it carries a risk of vaccine-derived poliovirus, making IPV the preferred choice in some situations. Therefore, Choice C is the most accurate as it highlights the unique ability of OPV to induce mucosal immunity, which is essential for preventing poliovirus transmission.
Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with granulomatous hypersensitivity?
- A. Crohn's disease
- B. Sarcoidosis
- C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- D. Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Granulomatous hypersensitivity is characterized by the formation of granulomas in response to persistent antigen exposure. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease involving immune complex deposition and inflammation, not granuloma formation. Crohn's disease, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis are commonly associated with granulomatous hypersensitivity due to their chronic inflammatory nature and granuloma formation in affected tissues. SLE does not typically present with granulomas, making it the correct answer.
The nurse is caring for a patient being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. In reviewing laboratory values, which should the nurse recognize as being diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. C-reactive protein = 12 mg/L
- B. Rheumatoid factor is negative.
- C. White blood cells = 6000/mm3
- D. Antinuclear antibody test is negative.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an elevated C-reactive protein level indicates inflammation, which is a key feature of rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid factor (choice B) is positive in only 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, so a negative result does not rule out the disease. White blood cell count (choice C) and antinuclear antibody test (choice D) are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis. In summary, an elevated C-reactive protein level is a more reliable indicator of the disease compared to the other options provided.
What is the outcome of clonal selection after a lymphocyte is activated?
- A. Cytokine suppression
- B. Formation of memory and effector cells
- C. Antigen elimination without cellular proliferation
- D. Destruction of the lymphocyte
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because clonal selection during lymphocyte activation leads to the formation of memory and effector cells. This process involves the proliferation and differentiation of the activated lymphocyte into these specialized cells, which play crucial roles in immune responses upon encountering the same antigen in the future. Cytokine suppression (choice A) is not the direct outcome of clonal selection but may be a regulatory mechanism during immune responses. Antigen elimination without cellular proliferation (choice C) is not accurate as clonal selection involves the expansion of specific lymphocyte clones. Destruction of the lymphocyte (choice D) is not the outcome of clonal selection, as activated lymphocytes undergo proliferation and differentiation rather than destruction.
Which characteristic corresponds with the acute stage of HIV infection?
- A. Burkitt’s lymphoma
- B. Temporary fall of CD4+ T cells
- C. Persistent fevers and night sweats
- D. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the acute stage of HIV infection, there is a temporary decline in CD4+ T cell counts followed by rebounding levels. Symptoms such as fever and night sweats may occur but are not definitive characteristics of this stage.