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What is the purpose of ovarian reserve testing in fertility assessments?
- A. To predict the likelihood of multiple pregnancies.
- B. To estimate the quantity and quality of a woman's remaining eggs.
- C. To assess uterine health and readiness for implantation.
- D. To monitor hormone levels during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of ovarian reserve testing in fertility assessments is to estimate the quantity and quality of a woman's remaining eggs. This is crucial in determining a woman's fertility potential and likelihood of success with fertility treatments. By assessing ovarian reserve, healthcare providers can gauge how many eggs a woman has left and how well they are likely to respond to fertility treatments such as in vitro fertilization (IVF). This information is essential for personalized fertility planning. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the main purpose of ovarian reserve testing, which is specifically focused on evaluating a woman's egg quantity and quality.
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A nurse is providing care to a woman in labor. After assessment of the fetus, the nurse documents the fetal lie. Which term would the nurse use?
- A. flexion
- B. extension
- C. longitudinal
- D. cephalic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because fetal lie refers to the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother. The primary lies are longitudinal, oblique, and transverse. Flexion and extension are terms used to describe fetal attitude, while cephalic is used to describe fetal presentation.
What is the primary goal of using gonadotropins in fertility treatments?
- A. To suppress ovulation for egg preservation.
- B. To stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs.
- C. To prevent hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle.
- D. To enhance uterine lining growth for implantation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of using gonadotropins in fertility treatments is to stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs. This increases the chances of successful fertilization and pregnancy. Gonadotropins mimic the natural hormones that regulate ovulation and stimulate the growth of follicles in the ovaries. By producing multiple eggs, there is a higher likelihood of at least one egg being successfully fertilized.
Choice A is incorrect because gonadotropins actually stimulate ovulation rather than suppress it.
Choice C is incorrect as gonadotropins do not prevent hormonal fluctuations but rather help regulate and induce controlled hormonal changes.
Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of using gonadotropins is not to enhance uterine lining growth but rather to stimulate egg production in the ovaries.
When assessing cervical effacement of a client in labor, the nurse assesses which characteristic?
- A. extent of opening to its widest diameter
- B. degree of thinning
- C. passage of the mucous plug
- D. fetal presenting part
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cervical effacement refers to the degree of thinning of the cervix, not the extent of opening. This assessment is important in determining progress in labor. The other options are not related to cervical effacement.
A nurse is educating a patient about frozen embryo transfer (FET). What should be emphasized?
- A. FET requires daily hormone injections for success.
- B. FET involves transferring previously frozen embryos into the uterus.
- C. FET is only performed if natural conception is impossible.
- D. FET guarantees a successful pregnancy outcome.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FET involves transferring previously frozen embryos into the uterus. This is because FET is a process where frozen embryos from a previous IVF cycle are thawed and transferred into the uterus. The other choices are incorrect: A is false as hormone injections may not be required daily, C is false as FET can be done for various reasons beyond just natural conception issues, and D is false as success is not guaranteed in any fertility treatment.
A nurse is instructing a woman on the use of ovulation predictor kits. What should the nurse tell the client?
- A. A prescription is required.
- B. The kit will determine a serum LH level.
- C. The LH surge usually occurs 12 hours prior to ovulation.
- D. Your interval of greatest fertility is on the day of the LH surge and the following 2 days.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the interval of greatest fertility is indeed on the day of the LH surge and the following 2 days, maximizing chances of conception. Choice A is incorrect as ovulation predictor kits are typically over-the-counter. Choice B is incorrect as the kit measures urinary LH, not serum. Choice C is incorrect as the LH surge usually occurs 24-36 hours before ovulation, not 12.