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What is the role of hCG in early pregnancy tests?
- A. hCG stimulates ovulation during the menstrual cycle.
- B. hCG levels rise after implantation, confirming pregnancy.
- C. hCG reduces the risk of miscarriage during early pregnancy.
- D. hCG suppresses the menstrual cycle during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) levels rise after implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus, confirming pregnancy. This hormone is produced by the developing placenta and is the key marker used in early pregnancy tests to detect pregnancy.
A is incorrect because hCG does not stimulate ovulation; rather, it is produced after ovulation to support pregnancy.
C is incorrect because while hCG plays a role in supporting pregnancy, it does not directly reduce the risk of miscarriage.
D is incorrect because hCG does not suppress the menstrual cycle; it is actually produced during pregnancy and is essential for maintaining the pregnancy.
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What is the role of a saline sonohysterogram in evaluating infertility?
- A. To visualize the uterine cavity and detect abnormalities.
- B. To measure hormone levels in the bloodstream.
- C. To assess ovarian reserve directly.
- D. To monitor embryo development after IVF.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a saline sonohysterogram is specifically used to visualize the uterine cavity and detect abnormalities such as polyps, fibroids, or adhesions that may be causing infertility. It helps identify structural issues that may interfere with implantation or pregnancy.
Choice B is incorrect because a saline sonohysterogram does not measure hormone levels in the bloodstream. Choice C is also incorrect as it does not directly assess ovarian reserve, which is typically evaluated through blood tests like AMH and FSH levels. Choice D is incorrect as a saline sonohysterogram is not used to monitor embryo development after IVF, but rather to assess the uterine cavity before the procedure.
The nurse is reviewing the monitoring strip of a woman in labor who is experiencing a contraction. The nurse notes the time the contraction takes from its onset to reach its highest intensity. The nurse interprets this time as which phase?
- A. increment
- B. acme
- C. peak
- D. decrement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the time from the onset of a contraction to its highest intensity corresponds to the increment phase, which is the buildup of the contraction. The acme is the peak intensity, and the decrement is the relaxation phase.
A patient is being interviewed by the nurse. During the family history assessment, the patient reports having had relatives with cancer. Which is the nurse's best response?
- A. Complete a pedigree, noting the types of cancer and which relatives were affected.
- B. Ask whether the cancer was in male or female relatives.
- C. Determine whether the cancer reported in the family history is pertinent to the patient's personal medical history.
- D. Schedule a consult with a genetic counselor to further assess the patient's risk.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Completing a pedigree allows for a visual representation of the family's health history.
2. Noting the types of cancer and affected relatives helps identify patterns and potential genetic risks.
3. This response demonstrates a proactive approach to understanding the patient's genetic predispositions.
Summary of other choices:
B: Asking about the gender of affected relatives does not provide as much detailed information about the types of cancer or specific family members affected.
C: Determining relevance to personal history is important, but a pedigree provides a broader picture for risk assessment.
D: Referring to a genetic counselor may be necessary but completing a pedigree first helps gather essential information for a more informed consultation.
A nurse explains ovulation induction medications to a patient. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Medications ensure the release of multiple eggs per cycle.
- B. Medications can occasionally lead to mild abdominal discomfort.
- C. Medications increase the hormonal signals for egg maturation and release.
- D. Medications eliminate the need for timed intercourse.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because ovulation induction medications work by increasing the hormonal signals that stimulate egg maturation and release. This is crucial for patients struggling with infertility. Choice A is incorrect because the goal is not necessarily to release multiple eggs per cycle, but rather to ensure the release of a healthy egg. Choice B is incorrect as mild abdominal discomfort is not a primary concern with these medications. Choice D is incorrect because timed intercourse is often still recommended to maximize the chances of conception even with the use of ovulation induction medications.
A 25-year-old female tells the nurse, 'I have always planned on having children, but now I have been diagnosed with leukemia. I will start chemotherapy treatments soon.' The nurse should discuss which fertility preservation options with this patient?
- A. Donor oocytes
- B. Gestational carrier
- C. Ovulation induction with oocyte retrieval
- D. Cryopreservation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryopreservation. This option allows the patient to preserve her fertility by freezing her eggs before starting chemotherapy, which may affect her ovarian function. Cryopreservation is the most suitable choice in this scenario as it provides the patient with the opportunity to have biological children in the future. Donor oocytes (choice A) and gestational carrier (choice B) are not relevant options for this patient as she wants to use her own eggs. Ovulation induction with oocyte retrieval (choice C) may not be feasible due to the urgency of starting chemotherapy and the potential risks associated with ovarian stimulation.