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Photosynthesis is a process used by plants, algae, and certain bacteria to convert light energy into chemical energy stored in sugar molecules. This process is fundamental to life on Earth as it provides the primary source of energy for nearly all organisms. The energy is captured from sunlight by a pigment in the plants called chlorophyll, which gives plants their green color.
During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide from the air and water from the soil react in the presence of light to form sugars and oxygen. The oxygen is released into the atmosphere, which is crucial for the survival of most life forms on Earth. The sugars produced are used by the plant for energy and growth, storing excess energy as starch.
The process occurs in two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the Calvin cycle. In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by chlorophyll and converted into stored chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH. The Calvin cycle uses the ATP and NADPH produced in the light-dependent reactions to convert carbon dioxide into glucose.
Photosynthesis not only sustains plant life but also maintains the atmospheric oxygen levels and is a key factor in the carbon cycle, helping to regulate Earth's climate.
What would likely happen if chlorophyll was absent in plants?
- A. The rate of photosynthesis would increase
- B. Plants would not be able to capture light energy effectively
- C. Plants would produce more oxygen
- D. The Calvin cycle would be more efficient
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If chlorophyll was absent in plants, they would not be able to capture light energy effectively. Chlorophyll is the pigment responsible for absorbing sunlight, a crucial step in the process of photosynthesis. Without chlorophyll, plants would lack the ability to convert light energy into chemical energy, leading to a significant impairment or cessation of photosynthesis. This would ultimately hinder the production of sugars, oxygen release, and overall plant growth and survival.
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Exams: Subjective exams measure your ability in several areas. Besides recalling information, you must be able to organize content logically and intelligently express yourself in a clearly understood manner. Subjective tests provide a greater opportunity for students to show their broad knowledge of a subject area. Answers may be in the form of paragraphs or lengthy essays.
When you review for an essay exam, concentrate on main ideas rather than details. Since essay tests are limited to a few questions, they are likely to deal with more important ideas of a subject. Prepare a list of questions that you think might be asked. Write an answer to each of your questions. Rather than writing complete sentences, jot down your thoughts in outline form. Doing so will help you organize the information so that you can express yourself clearly.
When you take the test, read through all the questions before you start to write. Allot time for each question, allowing more time for questions worth the most points. Read each question carefully to determine exactly what is being asked. Pay attention to words such as 'compare,' 'contrast,' 'discuss,' 'explain,' 'justify,' and 'define.' Write your answers on the front or the back of the test page. Make sure you include all the important ideas that are within the limits of the question. In other words, do not give more than is asked for each answer. When you write your answer, keep it specific and as brief as possible. In the introductory sentence, it is often helpful to make a general statement that includes important points addressed in the question. Such a topic sentence serves as a framework for your answer.
Check your paper before you submit it. Look for mistakes in grammar, spelling, sentence structure, and punctuation. Unless you are certain an answer is wrong, do not change it. Your answer is an educated guess and is usually your best chance of answering correctly.
According to the information provided in the selection, which of the following steps should be taken first when preparing for an essay exam?
- A. Prepare a list of questions that you might be asked.
- B. Organize the information so you can express yourself clearly.
- C. Proofread your paper looking for mistakes in grammar.
- D. Make an outline of your answers on a scrap paper.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Make an outline of your answers on a scrap paper. This is the first step to take when preparing for an essay exam according to the information provided. Making an outline helps you organize your thoughts and structure your answers logically before you start writing. It allows you to plan the key points you want to include and ensure a clear and coherent response.
Choice A is incorrect because preparing a list of questions comes after making an outline. Choice B is also incorrect because organizing information to express yourself clearly typically follows creating an outline. Choice C is incorrect as proofreading for mistakes in grammar should be done after you have written your answers. Making an outline first is crucial for effective preparation for an essay exam.
It is a well-known fact that it takes the Earth approximately 365 days to orbit the Sun. At the same time, the Earth revolves or spins around itself over the course of 24 hours, which explains why we experience day and night. One half of the Earth is always facing the Sun, while the other half is facing away. As a result, different time zones divide the globe. Moving suddenly from one time zone to another, such as when flying from Asia to North America, can cause jet lag. People often feel tired, wake up suddenly during the night, and cannot return to sleep. It takes time to adjust to a new time zone. Another important factor to consider is the slight tilt of the Earth toward the Sun. The Earth does not stand straight but leans slightly to one side. Therefore, when it revolves around the Sun, the middle part of the Earth is always closer to the Sun and receives more heat. This area is called the equator, and the regions above and below it are known as the tropics. Countries located in the tropics receive a consistent amount of daylight throughout the year, with the Sun rising at 6 AM and setting at 6 PM. In contrast, the tips of the Earth, or the poles, receive hardly any light because they are so far from the Sun. There are two main seasons at the poles: 6 months of summer, when the Sun is always shining (even at night), and 6 months of winter, characterized by constant darkness. Between the tropics and the poles lies the temperate zone, where there are four distinct seasons. The Sun rises and sets at different times throughout the year. In spring and summer, it gets light earlier; in fall and winter, it gets dark earlier. People living in temperate zones take advantage of this variation to maximize their daylight exposure. At the beginning of spring, countries in Europe and North America readjust their clocks by moving them an hour ahead. As a result, the Sun does not set around 7 or 8 PM as usual, but an hour later. This practice is called Daylight Savings Time (DST) and lasts until the beginning of fall, when people move their clocks back one hour to Standard or Regular Time. It is believed that Benjamin Franklin first suggested the introduction of Daylight Savings Time in the 18th century, but the first serious proposal came in 1907 from William Willet. However, his idea was shelved by the British government, which deemed it unnecessary. Daylight Savings Time was first implemented by the German government in 1916 in order to save energy during World War I. Shortly after, the United Kingdom followed suit, with the United States doing the same in 1918. The law was unpopular, as people had to wake up earlier, leading many to experience a feeling similar to jet lag. However, the energy crisis of the 1970s forced the U.S. to establish Daylight Savings Time as law. Studies showed that the introduction of Daylight Savings Time in the spring saved the U.S. 10,000 barrels of oil per day between 1974 and 1975. It also prevented 2,000 traffic injuries and 50 traffic-related deaths, saving the country $28 million. Currently, Americans switch to Daylight Savings Time on the first Sunday in April and revert to Standard Time on the last Sunday in October. As of 2007, the time adjustments occur even earlier in March and November.
Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
- A. The cause of jet lag
- B. The amount of daylight at the tropics
- C. Why the time readjustment will happen
- D. Why the British government refused Daylight Savings Time
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The passage discusses various aspects related to time zones, Earth's movement, and Daylight Savings Time. The cause of jet lag is mentioned, explaining how sudden changes in time zones can disrupt sleep patterns. The amount of daylight at the tropics is also discussed, noting that countries there receive the same amount of daylight consistently. Additionally, the passage explains the reason for the time readjustment due to Daylight Savings Time. However, the passage does not mention why the British government refused Daylight Savings Time, making option D the correct answer.
About 6% of the earth is covered by rainforests. The largest rainforest in the world is the
Amazon Basin, which stretches over 2.3 million square miles in nine different South American countries. This area is double the length of all the other remaining rainforests in the world. Brazil contains 60%of the Amazonian rainforest, since it lies at the mouth of the river Amazon. This river is the second largest in the world and contains more than one-fifth oftheworldĆ¢Ä‚¬Ä„¢sfresh water. The Amazon rainforest is a type of wet broadleaf forest. The weather there is very humid and warm as it rains quite a bit. Because of the high rainfall, the forest is very rich and green. The
tree leaves are pointed and narrow so that the raindrops can easily drop off wet plants. This
tropical rainforest has more living species than the entire European continent. There are over 400 types of insects living in one single rain forest tree for a total of 2.5 million species. One square kilometer of rainforest may contain over 75,000 types of trees and approximately 438,000
different kinds of plants, which comes to a total of 90,000 tons of greenery overall. The Amazon rainforest is home to 2,000 birds and mammals, with one in every five birds in the world living there. Local farmers have lived off this rich and diverse land for thousands of years. They have been able to find food and water here without destroying the land. The Kayapo people of Brazil
farm in an environmentally-friendly way. Instead of chemicals, they use burned wood to enrich the soil, and plant banana trees, which attract wasps. These wasps then feed on leafcutter ants and get rid of these harmful insects. The rainforest also offers a lot of tropical fruits, such as bananas and coconuts, as food.
Cinnamon is made from the bark of a rainforest tree. Amazonian Indians use the fruit and stem
of the Buruti plant as a drink, to make bread and to build houses. Many other plants are used as medicine. But the Amazon rainforest is in very big danger of disappearing. 9,169 square miles of
forest have been cut down in 2003 in Brazil alone. An area of the size of a football field is burned down basically every minute, which means that the rain forest may be gone by the year 2030.The dangers related to this type of activity are obvious. Trees take in poisonous carbon
dioxide from the air and give off oxygen. There is more oxygen and less carbon dioxide around a
rainforest. When trees are cut down, however, the amount of carbon dioxide increases, and the
air gets warmer. This leads to global warming, which is extremely harmful to the environment. It
is estimated that the burning of Brazilian rainforests alone produces 200 million metric tons of carbon dioxide ayear. Another danger connected with destroying the rainforest is the disappearance of plants and animals. When trees are cut down, plants and animals have no more
food left and slowly die out. Killing wild animals is illegal in Brazil, but there is plenty of stealing going on. 38 million animals are stolen and sold illegally each year. The most hunted
animals are birds, especially parrots, followed by snakes and the jaguar.
What does the sentence 'people of Brazil farm in an environmentally friendly way' mean in paragraph 3?
- A. They do not poison the soil when farming.
- B. They use natural chemicals to enrich the soil.
- C. They plant and preserve banana trees.
- D. They do not kill insects even if they are harmful.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'They do not poison the soil when farming.' The statement in the paragraph refers to the environmentally friendly farming practices of the Kayapo people in Brazil. Instead of using harmful chemicals, they opt for burned wood to enrich the soil. This sustainable approach helps maintain the fertility of the land without causing harm to the environment. It highlights their conscious effort to farm in a way that is beneficial and sustainable for the ecosystem, emphasizing the importance of preserving the environment while meeting their agricultural needs.
Subjective exams measure your ability in several areas. Besides recall information, you must be
able to realize content logically and intelligently express yourself in a clearly understood manner. Subjective test provide opportunity for students to show their broad knowledge of a subjective
area. Answers may be in the form of paragraphs or lengthy essays. When your review for an essay exam, concentrate on main ideas rather than details. Since essay tests are less to a few questions, they are likely to deal with more important ideas of a subject. Prepare a list of question you think might be asked. Write an answer to each of your questions. Rather than writing complete sentence down your thoughts in outline form. Doing so will help
you organize the information so that you can express yourself clearly.
When you take the test, read through all the questions before you start to write. Allot time for each question, spending more time for questions worth the most points. Read each question carefully to determine exactly what they are asked. Pay attention to words such as define, illustrate, explain, list, compare, and contrast. Each work requires a different type of response. Write a brief outline of your answer on scrap paper or the back of the test. Make sure you include all the important ideas that are within the limits of the question. In other words, do not write more than is asked for each answer. When you write your answer, keep it specific and as brief as possible. In the introductory sentence it is often helpful to make a general statement that includes
important points addressed in each question. Such a topic sentence serves as a framework for your answer. Then use your outline to develop the main point and subtopics. Add substance to
your answer by including as many facts as possible to support your answer.
Check your paper before you submit it. Look for mistakes in grammar, spelling, sentence
structure, and punctuation. Unless you are certain an answer is wrong, do not change it. Your answer is an educated guess and is usually your best chance of answering correctly
Compared to objective exams, subjective tests contain
- A. more questions
- B. fewer questions
- C. harder questions
- D. no good answers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective exams typically contain fewer questions compared to objective exams. This is because subjective tests often focus on more in-depth and complex concepts, requiring students to provide detailed responses in the form of paragraphs or essays. Unlike objective exams that may have a larger number of questions testing specific knowledge, subjective tests concentrate on fewer but more substantial questions that assess the student's ability to analyze, synthesize, and express their understanding of the subject matter effectively.
Croatian-born inventor Nikola Tesla is often called the "forgotten scientist". Although he
invented the alternating current (AC) motor and developed an AC electricity generation system, he never received historical credit for many of his achievements, unlike one of his first employer and eventual nemesis, inventor Thomas Edison
Tesla made the first sketches of his idea for a brushless of his idea for a brushless AC motor while he was a student at the University of Prague in 1882. His interest in electricity generation led him to Paris where he was employed by the Continental Edison Company later that year to repair Edison's direct current (DC) power plants. Two years later, Tesla immigrated to New York City and acquired a job as an engineer at
Thomas Edison's headquarters in Manhattan. Edison was impressed with Tesla's work ethic and
ingenuity. He challenged the young scientist to develop an improved design for his DC
generators for $50,000. Tesla experimented for months, finally presenting Edison with the
solution he needed. Edison reneged on the deal, telling Tesla that he didn't understand American humor. Tesla soon left Edison in order to begin his own electric light company
Tesla filed and was granted more than 30 patents for his inventions in 1887 and 1888. He soon
had financial backing for his ideas from one of Edison' main competitors, Westinghouse. In the
1890's Tesla experimented with x-rays, developed a high-voltage electrical transformer call the
Tesla coil, and demonstrated the propagation of radio waves two years before the "Father of
Radio" Guglielmo Marconi. He was also the first to harness the mammoth potential energy of
Niagara Falls. He worked with General Electric to install AC generators with turbines driven by the falling waters of the Niagara River, creating the first modern power plant although a brilliant scientist, Tesla was not an astute businessman. He created his own obscurity by relinquishing
royalty rights for his inventions to major corporations for the purpose of raising funds for future projects.
What is the meaning of the word 'mammoth' as it is used in the fourth paragraph?
- A. Dangerous
- B. Raw
- C. Unused
- D. Massive
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of the fourth paragraph, the word 'mammoth' is used to describe the potential energy of Niagara Falls. The term 'mammoth' means massive or huge, emphasizing the enormous scale and power of the energy source. Therefore, the correct answer is 'D: Massive.' This word choice highlights the immense size and significance of the energy source being harnessed by Tesla, aligning with the description of Niagara Falls as a massive potential energy resource.