Nokea
When a hand or foot lies alongside the presenting part, the presentation is said to be
- A. Footling
- B. Transverse
- C. Cephalic
- D. Compound
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound. In compound presentation, a hand or foot is alongside the presenting part, usually the head. This can complicate the delivery process. A: Footling presentation means the foot presents first. B: Transverse presentation is when the baby is lying sideways. C: Cephalic presentation is normal, with the head presenting first. In this scenario, D is the correct answer as it specifically describes the situation where a hand or foot is alongside the presenting part.
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Excessive traction and twisting of the neck during delivery of the shoulders in SVD could lead to
- A. Erb’s palsy
- B. Radial palsy
- C. Torticollis
- D. Ecchymosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erb’s palsy. Excessive traction and twisting of the neck during shoulder delivery can stretch or tear the brachial plexus nerves, leading to Erb’s palsy. This results in weakness or paralysis of the arm. Radial palsy (B) involves injury to the radial nerve, not typically caused by shoulder delivery. Torticollis (C) is a condition characterized by neck muscle contracture, not caused by excessive traction during delivery. Ecchymosis (D) refers to bruising and is not directly related to neck traction during delivery. In summary, Erb’s palsy is the correct choice due to the specific nerve injury pattern associated with excessive neck traction during shoulder delivery.
Breech presentation: a) What is meant by “breech presentation”?
- A. Head-first presentation
- B. Bottom or feet-first presentation
- C. Oblique lie
- D. Transverse lie
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Breech presentation refers to the bottom or feet-first position of the baby in the uterus. This is the correct answer (B) because it accurately defines breech presentation. Choice A (head-first presentation) is incorrect as it describes the typical vertex presentation. Choices C (oblique lie) and D (transverse lie) are also incorrect as they refer to other abnormal fetal positions that are different from breech presentation.
Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to decision making for a cognitively impaired patient?
- A. Only a court can declare a patient incompetent
- B. Impaired cognition does not make a person incompetent
- C. Living wills typically are honored if a person is terminally ill
- D. A patient can give informed consent if not declared incompetent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because living wills typically are not always honored for cognitively impaired patients. Step-by-step rationale: A) Incorrect - A court can declare a patient incompetent if they are unable to make decisions. B) Incorrect - Impaired cognition can indeed make a person incompetent. D) Incorrect - A patient must have the capacity to understand information and make decisions to give informed consent.
A mother with a cord prolapse is given oxygen at a rate of 4 liters/minute in order to
- A. Relieve maternal distress
- B. Promote her relative rest
- C. Improve fetal oxygenation
- D. Achieve the effect of tocolysis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Improve fetal oxygenation. Oxygen at 4 liters/minute is given to increase oxygen levels which can help improve oxygenation to the fetus during a cord prolapse scenario. This can be crucial in preventing fetal distress and hypoxia.
Explanation for Incorrect Choices:
A: Relieve maternal distress - Oxygen is primarily given in this scenario to benefit the fetus, not to relieve maternal distress.
B: Promote her relative rest - Oxygen is not administered to promote rest, but to address the immediate concern of fetal oxygenation.
D: Achieve the effect of tocolysis - Oxygen does not have a role in tocolysis, which is the inhibition of uterine contractions.
Convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism are confused for
- A. Antepartum eclampsia
- B. Presence of stroke
- C. Pre-existing epilepsy
- D. Postpartum eclampsia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions are often mistaken for postpartum eclampsia due to similar symptoms such as seizures and altered mental status. Postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, usually within 48 hours, while antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery. Presence of stroke and pre-existing epilepsy are not directly related to convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism. Thus, D is the correct choice as it closely resembles the presentation of convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism.