Which hormone, produced by the kidneys,
- A. the glomerular capsule plays a role in the production of red blood
- B. the loop of Henle cells?
- C. pyramids of the kidney
- D. adrenaline
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because erythropoietin, a hormone produced by the kidneys in the glomerular capsule, stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. Choice B (the loop of Henle cells) is incorrect as they are involved in urine concentration, not hormone production. Choice C (pyramids of the kidney) is incorrect as they are structures in the kidney, not involved in hormone production. Choice D (adrenaline) is incorrect as it is produced by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.
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A patient has very high plasma uric acid and has high risk of developing acute uric acid nephropathy. Which of the following agent should be avoided?
- A. Ethacrynic acid
- B. Acetazolamide
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic which can increase uric acid levels in the blood, potentially worsening the patient's condition. Ethacrynic acid (A) is also a loop diuretic and can have similar effects. Acetazolamide (B) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and may increase urinary excretion of uric acid, which can be beneficial in this case. Hydrochlorothiazide (C) is a thiazide diuretic that can actually lower uric acid levels by increasing urinary excretion. Therefore, the best choice to avoid in a patient with high plasma uric acid and risk of acute uric acid nephropathy is furosemide.
Which of the following drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme?
- A. Lamivudine
- B. Efavirenz
- C. Stavudine
- D. Ritonavir
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment.
2. It works by inhibiting the HIV protease enzyme, preventing viral replication.
3. Lamivudine, Efavirenz, and Stavudine are not protease inhibitors but work through different mechanisms.
4. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, and Stavudine is another nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
Summary:
Ritonavir is the correct answer as it directly targets the HIV protease enzyme, unlike the other options which act on reverse transcriptase enzymes.
The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia.
- A. Scrotal.
- B. Femoral.
- C. Direct inguinal.
- D. Indirect inguinal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct inguinal hernia. In this scenario, the key clues are the painless round swelling close to the pubis, easily reduced when supine, and in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Direct inguinal hernias occur due to weakness in the abdominal wall muscles, often seen in older males with increased intra-abdominal pressure. The hernia protrudes directly through the abdominal wall, typically in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Scrotal hernias (Choice A) present in the scrotum, not close to the pubis. Femoral hernias (Choice B) occur below the inguinal ligament and are more common in females. Indirect inguinal hernias (Choice D) pass through the internal inguinal ring and are more common in young males.
Which of the following anthelmintic acts as a cholinergic agonist in the * nematodes and causes spastic paralysis of the worms?:
- A. Piperazine
- B. Pyrantel pamoate
- C. Mebendazole
- D. Albendazole
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Piperazine is the correct answer as it acts as a cholinergic agonist in nematodes, causing spastic paralysis by mimicking acetylcholine.
2. Pyrantel pamoate works by depolarizing neuromuscular junctions, not through cholinergic agonism.
3. Mebendazole and Albendazole inhibit microtubule synthesis in worms, leading to impaired glucose uptake, not cholinergic effects.
A patient has been experiencing vaginal bleeding and cramping, which the nurse suspects could be an early sign of a miscarriage. Which of the following should the nurse assess for during this examination?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. High blood pressure.
- C. Weight loss and fatigue.
- D. Changes in breast size or tenderness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight loss and fatigue. In the context of vaginal bleeding and cramping, weight loss and fatigue are concerning signs that may indicate a potential miscarriage. Weight loss could be due to decreased appetite or nutritional deficiencies associated with the stress of a miscarriage. Fatigue may result from hormonal changes and emotional distress. Assessing for weight loss and fatigue helps the nurse monitor the patient's overall well-being and provide appropriate support.
Choice A (Hyperthyroidism) is incorrect as it is not directly related to the symptoms of vaginal bleeding and cramping suggestive of a possible miscarriage.
Choice B (High blood pressure) is also incorrect as it is not typically associated with early signs of a miscarriage.
Choice D (Changes in breast size or tenderness) is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly related to pregnancy rather than miscarriage.