Which of the following beta-blockers also has additional alpha-blocking activity?
- A. Nadolol
- B. Pindolol
- C. Labetalol
- D. Esmolol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Labetalol has both beta and alpha-1 blocking activity, making it unique among beta-blockers.
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Drug errors are most likely to occur at which time? Select one that does not that apply.
- A. When transcribing the drug order
- B. When verifying the client
- C. When dispensing the drug
- D. When the drug is administered
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Drug errors may occur in transcribing drug orders, when the drug is dispensed, or in administration of the drug. Nurses, as the drug administrators, serve as the last defense against drug errors. Verifying the client and charting after administration are two important areas to help prevent medication errors.
Drugs do not metabolize the same way in all people. For what patient would a nurse expect to assess for an alteration in drug metabolism?
- A. A 35-year-old woman with cervical cancer
- B. A 41-year-old man with kidney stones
- C. A 50-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver
- D. A 62-year-old woman in acute renal failure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The liver is the most important site of drug metabolism. If the liver is not functioning effectively, as in patients with cirrhosis, drugs will not metabolize normally so that toxic levels could develop unless dosage is reduced. A patient with cervical cancer or kidney stones would not be expected to have altered ability to metabolize drugs so long as no liver damage existed. The patient with renal failure would have altered excretion of the drugs through the renal system but metabolism would not be impacted.
A 70-year-old patient has just received a drug, which can cause sedation. What would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
- A. Noncompliance: Cost of the drug
- B. Deficient knowledge: Unfamiliar with drug therapy
- C. Risk for injury: Related to adverse effects of the drug
- D. Ineffective health maintenance: Need for medication
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sedation increases the risk of falls or injury, making 'Risk for injury' the priority nursing diagnosis for a 70-year-old patient, given age-related vulnerabilities.
A patient requires 1,000 mL of IV fluid to be infused over 10 hours with a drop factor of 20 gtt/mL. What is the flow rate in drops per minute?
- A. 33 gtt/min
- B. 50 gtt/min
- C. 67 gtt/min
- D. 100 gtt/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flow rate = (Volume Drop factor) ÷ Time in minutes = (1,000 mL 20 gtt/mL) ÷ (10 60) = 20,000 ÷ 600 = 33.33 gtt/min, rounded to 33 gtt/min.
What medication is most likely to cause his weight gain?
- A. Acarbose
- B. Exenatide
- C. Glyburide
- D. Pioglitazone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pioglitazone is most likely to cause weight gain due to fluid retention and fat accumulation.
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