Nokea
Which of the following is a respiratory response to acidosis?
- A. secretion of H+
- B. increase tubule buffer activity
- C. decreased respiratory rate
- D. decreased ventilation-perfusion ratio
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: decreased respiratory rate. Acidosis is a condition where the blood pH is below the normal range, leading to increased levels of carbon dioxide. To compensate, the body increases respiratory rate to eliminate excess CO2 through the lungs. Therefore, in response to acidosis, the respiratory rate decreases.
A: Secretion of H+ is a metabolic response, not a respiratory response to acidosis.
B: Increased tubule buffer activity is a renal response, not a respiratory response to acidosis.
D: Decreased ventilation-perfusion ratio is a consequence of respiratory diseases but not a direct response to acidosis.
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Do you want to go to the park?
- A. Yes
- B. No
- C. Maybe
- D. I don't know
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yes. The question asks for a preference, and "Yes" indicates a positive desire to go to the park. Choosing "No" (B) indicates a lack of interest. "Maybe" (C) suggests uncertainty, and "I don't know" (D) shows indecision. Therefore, selecting "Yes" aligns with the question and expresses a clear preference, making it the correct answer.
Which of the following anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for * advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures?:
- A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI)
- B. Three NRTIs
- C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI
- D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI). This regimen is typically reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or repeated treatment failures due to its potent antiviral effects. NRTIs inhibit viral replication by interfering with the HIV enzyme reverse transcriptase, while PIs inhibit the enzyme protease, essential for viral maturation. Combining these two classes of drugs provides a strong barrier against HIV resistance. Other choices (B, C, D) are less effective in advanced cases as they do not provide the same level of dual inhibition necessary to combat resistant strains and advanced disease progression.
Which of the following new drug is indicated in managing SIADH, non – peptide and competitive antagonist of ADH’s water sparing effects in the collecting ducts of nephron?
- A. Mannitol
- B. Bumetanide
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Conivaptan
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Conivaptan. Conivaptan is a non-peptide competitive antagonist of ADH, indicated for managing SIADH by blocking ADH's water-sparing effects in the collecting ducts. Mannitol (A) is an osmotic diuretic used for reducing intracranial pressure, not specifically for SIADH. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema. Spironolactone (C) is a potassium-sparing diuretic used for conditions like hypertension and heart failure, not specifically for SIADH.
During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient's vestibule and expects to see the:
- A. Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice.
- B. Vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
- C. Urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands.
- D. Paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice. The vestibule is the area between the labia minora where the urethral meatus and vaginal orifice are located. This is important for the nurse to observe during an examination to assess the patient's genital health.
Choice B is incorrect because the vestibular (Bartholin) glands are not typically visible in the vestibule during an examination. Choice C is incorrect because the paraurethral (Skene) glands are not typically visible in the vestibule either. Choice D is incorrect because it combines the paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands, which are not typically visible in the vestibule during examination.
Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s) * a Staphylococci
- A. Streptococci
- B. Gonococci
- C. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Cloxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against Staphylococci.
2. Streptococci are not within the spectrum of activity for Cloxacillin.
3. Gonococci are also not susceptible to Cloxacillin.
4. Therefore, the correct answer is A (Streptococci), as Cloxacillin is indicated only for Staphylococcal infections.
Summary:
Choice A is correct because Cloxacillin is effective against Staphylococci. Choices B and C are incorrect because Cloxacillin is not indicated for Gonococci or all of the organisms mentioned.