Which of the following is the drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?
- A. prednisone (Colisone)
- B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
- C. indomethacin (Indocin)
- D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol is the correct drug to decrease uric acid levels as it is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid formation. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that decreases inflammation, not uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, not specifically used to reduce uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic primarily used for treating hypertension and edema, not for reducing uric acid levels.
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A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's current Lithium levels. Which of the following values is outside the therapeutic range?
- A. 1.0 mEq/L
- B. 1.1 mEq/L
- C. 1.2 mEq/L
- D. 1.3 mEq/L
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 1.3 mEq/L. The therapeutic range for Lithium levels typically falls between 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. Values below or above this range can lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes or toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are within the therapeutic range of 1.0-1.2 mEq/L, making them appropriate levels for patient care.
The client asked about the role of leptin in the body. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It increases food intake in clients, thereby promoting obesity.
- B. It assists in the regulation of steroids.
- C. It increases the total fat mass of people who are obese.
- D. It might decrease the total fat mass in the bodies of people who are obese.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Leptin is a protein hormone expressed in fat cells that regulates fat cell percentage in the body. It is associated with increased energy expenditure and decreased food intake through hypothalamic control. In obese individuals, there may be insensitivity or resistance to leptin's effects. Leptin influences other hormones like insulin and genetic factors related to fat regulation. Therefore, the correct response is that leptin might decrease total fat mass in obese individuals as it is involved in energy balance and fat regulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leptin does not increase food intake or promote obesity; it does not assist in the regulation of steroids, and it does not increase total fat mass in people who are obese.
A client with asthma develops respiratory acidosis. Based on this diagnosis, what should the nurse expect the client's serum potassium level to be?
- A. normal
- B. elevated
- C. low
- D. unrelated to the pH
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the body retains CO2, leading to increased hydrogen ion concentration and a drop in blood pH. As pH decreases, serum potassium levels increase due to the movement of potassium out of cells to compensate for the acidosis. Elevated serum potassium levels are expected in respiratory acidosis. Choice A ('normal') is incorrect because potassium levels are expected to be elevated in respiratory acidosis. Choice C ('low') is incorrect as potassium levels rise in this condition. Choice D ('unrelated to the pH') is incorrect as serum potassium levels are directly impacted by changes in pH in respiratory acidosis.
Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:
- A. nasal flaring
- B. grunting
- C. seesaw breathing
- D. quivering lips
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children typically include nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils during breathing to help with air intake, grunting is a sound made during expiration to keep the airway open, and seesaw breathing is an abnormal pattern where the chest moves in while the abdomen moves out. Quivering lips are not a typical sign of impaired breathing in infants and children, making it the correct answer. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all signs indicating the need for immediate medical attention due to potential respiratory distress.
Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:
- A. 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic.
- B. 40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.
- C. 10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic.
- D. 20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic. These parameters indicate mild PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension). Mild preeclampsia is characterized by an increase in systolic blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure greater than 15 mmHg, observed on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or reaching 140/90). Choice B (40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) represents a more significant elevation and would indicate a more severe condition than mild PIH. Choices C (10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic) and D (20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) do not meet the criteria for indicating PIH as they are below the accepted parameters for mild PIH.