Nokea
Which of the following is the most mature normoblast?
- A. Orthochromic Normoblast
- B. Basophilic Normoblast
- C. Pronormoblast
- D. Polychromatic Normoblast
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Orthochromic Normoblast. This is the most mature normoblast stage before becoming a mature red blood cell. The orthochromic normoblast has a small, condensed nucleus and minimal cytoplasmic basophilia. Basophilic normoblast (B) is an earlier stage with a larger nucleus and more basophilia. Pronormoblast (C) is the earliest stage with a large nucleus and intense basophilia. Polychromatic normoblast (D) is an intermediate stage with a slightly reduced nucleus and residual basophilia. Therefore, A is the most mature normoblast stage among the choices provided.
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The nurse is evaluating care provided to a client with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which observation indicates care has been successful for this client?
- A. Heart rate 110 beats per minute
- B. Oxygen saturation level 86%
- C. Urine output 20 mL per hour
- D. No evidence of bleeding
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in DIC, excessive clotting can lead to bleeding. Therefore, the absence of bleeding indicates successful care. Option A is not specific to DIC management. Option B indicates poor oxygenation, not related to DIC. Option C is insufficient urine output, not a direct indicator of DIC management.
An Rh-negative woman married to a heterozygous Rh-positive man has three children. The probability that all three of their children are Rh-positive is
- A. 1:2
- B. 1:4
- C. 1:8
- D. zero
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Certainly! The Rh factor follows Mendelian inheritance. The Rh-negative woman is homozygous Rh-negative (rr) and the Rh-positive man is heterozygous (Rr). The Punnett square for their offspring shows a 1/2 chance of each child being Rh-positive (Rr). Therefore, the probability of all three children being Rh-positive is (1/2)^3 = 1/8, making choice C the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not consider the specific genetic inheritance pattern of the Rh factor in this scenario.
The following morphological features are characteristic of iron deficiency anemia:
- A. Normochromic, microcytic
- B. Normochromic, normocytic
- C. Hypochromic, microcytic
- D. Hypochromic, macrocytic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypochromic, microcytic. In iron deficiency anemia, there is a decrease in hemoglobin content (hypochromic) and a decrease in red blood cell size (microcytic) due to insufficient iron for hemoglobin synthesis. Normochromic (choice A) and normocytic (choice B) would not be characteristic of iron deficiency anemia. Hypochromic, macrocytic (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of anemia, such as megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 or folate deficiency.
Bleeding episodes in a person with hemophilia can be treated with:
- A. Aspirin
- B. Blood clotting drugs
- C. Gene therapy
- D. Blood clotting factor transfusions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood clotting factor transfusions. This is the appropriate treatment for bleeding episodes in people with hemophilia as they lack certain clotting factors. Transfusing these missing clotting factors helps to stop the bleeding.
Explanation:
1. Aspirin (Choice A) is not recommended for hemophilia patients as it can increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects.
2. Blood clotting drugs (Choice B) may not be as effective as transfusions of specific clotting factors in treating bleeding episodes in hemophilia.
3. Gene therapy (Choice C) is a promising treatment for hemophilia, but it is not yet widely available and may not be the immediate solution for acute bleeding episodes.
Which one of the following is NOT true of class I MHC antigens?
- A. They can be assayed by a cytotoxic test that uses antibody and complement
- B. They can usually be identified in the laboratory in a few hours
- C. They are controlled by at least three gene loci in the major histocompatibility complex
- D. They are found mainly on B cells, macrophages, and activated T cells
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer, D, is not true because class I MHC antigens are primarily found on all nucleated cells, not just B cells, macrophages, and activated T cells. These antigens present endogenous antigens to CD8+ T cells. Choice A is incorrect because class I MHC antigens are not typically assayed using antibody and complement; instead, they are recognized by CD8+ T cells. Choice B is incorrect because identifying class I MHC antigens in the lab usually requires more than a few hours due to the complexity of the process. Choice C is incorrect because class I MHC antigens are controlled by a single gene locus in the major histocompatibility complex.