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Which of the following is true regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men?
- A. Testicular pain and epididymal tenderness are often present
- B. Painful urination is always present
- C. 10% of the infected men have no symptoms
- D. Purulent discharge from the urethra is always present
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10% of the infected men have no symptoms. This is true because gonorrhea can be asymptomatic in some individuals, leading to undiagnosed cases. Testicular pain and epididymal tenderness (choice A) are not typical symptoms of gonorrhea in men. Painful urination (choice B) may or may not be present. Purulent discharge (choice D) is a common symptom but not always present. Therefore, choice C is the most accurate statement regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men.
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Cholera is a serious gastrointestinal illness caused by bacteria of the genus:
- A. Escherichia
- B. Salmonella
- C. Vibrio
- D. Acinetobacter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vibrio. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae bacteria. These bacteria produce a toxin that causes severe diarrhea and dehydration. Escherichia (choice A) and Salmonella (choice B) are known for causing other types of gastrointestinal infections but not cholera. Acinetobacter (choice D) typically causes respiratory infections, not gastrointestinal illnesses like cholera. Therefore, the correct choice is Vibrio as it is specifically associated with cholera.
Respiratory tract infections can be caused by:
- A. Francisella tularensis
- B. Bordetella pertussis
- C. Coxiella brunetti
- D. All are correct
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the options listed can cause respiratory tract infections.
1. Francisella tularensis can cause pneumonia.
2. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, a respiratory infection.
3. Coxiella brunetti can lead to Q fever, which affects the respiratory system.
Therefore, all choices are correct for causing respiratory tract infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are individual causes of respiratory infections, whereas choice D encompasses all possible causes listed.
Which statement about the fungal mycelium is correct:
- A. It consists of intertwined hyphae
- B. Part of the mycelium goes in the medium and forms the substrate mycelium
- C. Part of the mycelium stays above the medium and forms the aerial mycelium
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
- A: The mycelium is indeed made up of intertwined hyphae, which are the branching filaments of fungi.
- B: Part of the mycelium does grow into the medium to acquire nutrients, forming the substrate mycelium.
- C: Some parts of the mycelium remain above the medium to aid in reproduction and spore dispersal, forming the aerial mycelium.
Therefore, all statements (A, B, and C) are correct, making choice D the correct answer. The mycelium exhibits both intertwined hyphae, substrate mycelium, and aerial mycelium to facilitate different functions.
Peptidoglycan is typically found in the:
- A. cell wall
- B. plasma membrane
- C. nucleus
- D. endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peptidoglycan is a major component of bacterial cell walls, providing structural support and protection. The correct answer is A because peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria. The cell wall is crucial for maintaining the shape of the bacterial cell and protecting it from external stresses. The plasma membrane (choice B) is primarily composed of phospholipids and proteins, not peptidoglycan. The nucleus (choice C) is found in eukaryotic cells and contains genetic material, not peptidoglycan. The endoplasmic reticulum (choice D) is an organelle involved in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism, but it does not contain peptidoglycan. Therefore, the correct answer is A as peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria.
After starting treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis a patient complained about red tears and urine. What drug could cause such changes?
- A. Rifampicin
- B. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
- C. Benzylpenicillin potassium salt
- D. Biseptol-480
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to cause red discoloration of bodily fluids, including tears and urine, due to its side effect of harmless color changes. Benzylpenicillins (B and C) and Biseptol-480 do not typically cause such discoloration. Rifampicin's mechanism of action involves binding to bacterial RNA polymerase, leading to inhibition of RNA synthesis, which is unrelated to the mechanism of the other drugs. Thus, based on the unique side effect profile of Rifampicin and its mechanism of action, it is the most likely drug causing red tears and urine in this scenario.