Quizlet Genitourinary System

Quizlet Genitourinary System Related

Review Quizlet Genitourinary System related questions and content

Which of the following new drug is indicated in managing SIADH , non - * peptide and competitive antagonist of ADH 's water sparing effects in the collecting ducts of nephron?

  • A. Mannitol
  • B. Bumetanide
  • C. Spironolactone
  • D. Conivaptan
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Conivaptan. Conivaptan is a non-peptide competitive antagonist of ADH, specifically targeting the V2 receptors in the collecting ducts of the nephron. This mechanism of action inhibits ADH's water-sparing effects, making it an effective treatment for SIADH.

A: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used for conditions like cerebral edema and acute kidney injury, not specifically for SIADH.

B: Bumetanide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and hypertension, not for managing SIADH.

C: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and hypertension, not for treating SIADH.

In summary, Conivaptan is the correct choice for managing SIADH due to its specific mechanism of action as a competitive antagonist of ADH in the collecting ducts, while the other options are

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A 25 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. * Which of the following drug would be most appropriate to prescribe in treating this patient's illness?

  • A. Zanamivir
  • B. Lamivudine
  • C. Valacyclovir
  • D. Cidofovir
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections. It is a prodrug of acyclovir, which inhibits viral DNA replication. Zanamivir (A) is used to treat influenza viruses, not herpes. Lamivudine (B) is used for HIV and hepatitis B, not herpes. Cidofovir (D) is used for cytomegalovirus and other viral infections, but not the first line for herpes. Valacyclovir is the most appropriate choice due to its effectiveness and safety profile in treating herpes simplex virus infections.

The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia.

  • A. Scrotal.
  • B. Femoral.
  • C. Direct inguinal.
  • D. Indirect inguinal.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct inguinal hernia. In this scenario, the key clues are the painless round swelling close to the pubis, easily reduced when supine, and in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Direct inguinal hernias occur due to weakness in the abdominal wall muscles, often seen in older males with increased intra-abdominal pressure. The hernia protrudes directly through the abdominal wall, typically in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Scrotal hernias (Choice A) present in the scrotum, not close to the pubis. Femoral hernias (Choice B) occur below the inguinal ligament and are more common in females. Indirect inguinal hernias (Choice D) pass through the internal inguinal ring and are more common in young males.

Corticosteroids are absolutely contraindicated in which of the following types * of tuberculosis?

  • A. Miliary
  • B. Meningeal
  • C. Intestinal
  • D. Renal
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Meningeal tuberculosis. Corticosteroids are contraindicated in meningeal tuberculosis because they can suppress the immune response, leading to increased bacterial growth and dissemination in the central nervous system. For miliary, intestinal, and renal tuberculosis, corticosteroids can be beneficial in reducing inflammation and improving outcomes.

Which of the following drug used in the treatment of filariasis?

  • A. Diethylcarbamazine
  • B. Albendazole
  • C. Levamisole
  • D. Piperazine
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Diethylcarbamazine is the correct answer for treating filariasis because it targets the microfilariae, adult worms, and larvae of filarial parasites. It is specifically designed to kill these parasites and is considered the drug of choice for filariasis treatment. Albendazole, Levamisole, and Piperazine are not effective against filarial parasites and are used for different types of infections or conditions. Albendazole is mainly used for treating intestinal worms, Levamisole is used for parasitic infections in animals, and Piperazine is used for treating pinworm infections. Thus, only Diethylcarbamazine directly targets and eliminates filarial parasites, making it the correct choice for filariasis treatment.

Which of the following is the most appropriate choice of treating * aspergillosis?

  • A. Terbinan
  • B. Amphotericin B
  • C. Flucytosine
  • D. Itraconazole
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Answer B, Amphotericin B, is the most appropriate choice for treating aspergillosis due to its broad-spectrum antifungal activity, especially against Aspergillus species. It is often used for severe or systemic infections when other options are ineffective. Terbinafine (A) is more commonly used for dermatophyte infections, while Flucytosine (C) is typically used for certain yeast infections. Itraconazole (D) may be effective against some Aspergillus strains but is generally considered less effective than Amphotericin B for severe cases.

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