Nokea
Which of the following statement about retroviral protease inhibitors?
- A. They act at an early step in HIV replication
- B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine
- C. They inhibit CYP 3A4 and interact with many other drugs
- D. Both (b) and (c) are correct
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for choice D: Retroviral protease inhibitors, such as lopinavir and ritonavir, are correct because they are more active in inhibiting HIV replication than zidovudine (B) and they inhibit CYP 3A4 and interact with many other drugs (C).
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: Retroviral protease inhibitors do not act at an early step in HIV replication; they act by blocking the protease enzyme necessary for viral maturation.
B: Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, not a protease inhibitor, so retroviral protease inhibitors are more potent against HIV.
C: While retroviral protease inhibitors do inhibit CYP 3A4 and interact with other drugs, this statement alone does not capture the complete picture of their mechanism of action or potency compared to zidovudine.
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Which laboratory result is of most concern for a patient with cystitis?
- A. Serum WBC 9000/mm?
- B. Urinalysis with 1-2 WBCs present
- C. Urine bacteria 100,000 colonies/mL
- D. Serum hematocrit 36%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine bacteria count of 100,000 colonies/mL indicates a significant bacterial infection, which is concerning for cystitis. This result suggests an active infection in the urinary tract, requiring prompt treatment.
A: Serum WBC of 9000/mm³ is within the normal range and may not necessarily indicate an active infection.
B: Urinalysis with 1-2 WBCs present is also within the normal range and may not be indicative of an acute infection.
D: Serum hematocrit of 36% is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood and is not directly related to cystitis.
A 75 year old man is suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy and is being treated with terazosin. Which of the following adverse reaction would be expected taking this drug?
- A. Erectile dysfunction
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. GI distress
- D. Gynecomastia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Orthostatic hypotension. Terazosin is an alpha-1 blocker commonly used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation can lead to vasodilation and subsequently cause a drop in blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse reaction of alpha-1 blockers due to this mechanism. The other choices, A: Erectile dysfunction, C: GI distress, and D: Gynecomastia are not typically associated with terazosin use. Erectile dysfunction can actually be improved with alpha-1 blockers as they relax smooth muscle in the prostate, allowing for easier urination and potentially improved sexual function. GI distress and gynecomastia are not common side effects of terazosin.
During an examination of an aging man, the nurse recognizes that normal changes to expect would be:
- A. Change in scrotal color.
- B. Decrease in the size of the penis.
- C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum.
- D. Increase in the number of rugae over the scrotal sa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. As men age, there is a decrease in testosterone levels leading to shrinkage of the testes and penis.
2. Decrease in penile size is a normal age-related change due to reduced blood flow.
3. Option A is incorrect as scrotal color usually remains unchanged.
4. Option C is incorrect as testes and scrotum tend to shrink rather than enlarge.
5. Option D is incorrect as rugae decrease with age due to decreased elasticity.
What is the drug of choice for ringworm infection?:
- A. Griseofulvin
- B. Amphotericin B
- C. Nystatin
- D. Neomycin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Griseofulvin. Griseofulvin is the drug of choice for ringworm infection because it specifically targets the fungus that causes ringworm. It works by inhibiting fungal cell division, leading to the destruction of the fungus. Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used for systemic fungal infections, not for ringworm. Nystatin is used to treat fungal infections of the skin, mouth, and intestines, but it is not the first-line treatment for ringworm. Neomycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like ringworm. Therefore, Griseofulvin is the most appropriate choice for treating ringworm.
The nurse is assessing a patient admitted with renal
- A. Provide privacy for the patient. stones. During the admission assessment, what parameters would be priorities for the nurse to address?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing the patient's renal function parameters such as serum creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, and urine output are essential in determining the status of the kidneys. These parameters help the nurse evaluate renal function, assess for renal impairment, and monitor for any complications related to renal stones. Option A is incorrect as providing privacy is important but not a priority in this situation. Option C and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific parameters related to renal function assessment.