Nokea
Which type of urinary tract calculi are the most common and frequently obstruct the ureter?
- A. Cystine
- B. Uric acid
- C. Calcium oxalate
- D. Calcium phosphate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium oxalate. This type of urinary tract calculi is the most common because calcium oxalate crystals are frequently formed due to various factors such as high dietary intake of oxalate-rich foods. These crystals can easily aggregate and form calculi that often obstruct the ureter due to their size and shape. Cystine calculi (A) are rare and usually seen in patients with genetic disorders. Uric acid calculi (B) are common in patients with gout or acidic urine but are not the most frequent type. Calcium phosphate calculi (D) can form in conditions of alkaline urine but are less common than calcium oxalate calculi.
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An outbreak of influenza A has just been reported in his community and a 45 year old man is exhibiting initial symptoms of influenza A. Which agent would be the most useful to treat him?
- A. Cidofovir
- B. Famciclovir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Ribavirin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amantadine. Amantadine is an antiviral medication that is specifically effective against influenza A virus. It works by blocking the viral ion channel, preventing the virus from entering the host cell. This inhibits viral replication and helps reduce the severity and duration of symptoms.
Choice A, Cidofovir, is used to treat certain DNA viruses but is not effective against influenza A. Choice B, Famciclovir, is used to treat herpes viruses, not influenza A. Choice D, Ribavirin, is an antiviral medication used for respiratory syncytial virus and hepatitis C, but not as effective against influenza A. Therefore, the most appropriate choice in this scenario is Amantadine due to its specific activity against influenza A virus.
Which one of the following bactericidal antimycobacterial drugs binds to S12 * ribosomal subunit inhibiting protein synthesis when injectable drug is needed and also effective against drug-resistant tuberculosis drug, can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?
- A. Streptomycin
- B. Ethambutol
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Rifampicin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptomycin. Streptomycin binds to the S12 ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis in Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is effective against drug-resistant tuberculosis and is used as an injectable drug. Streptomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity as side effects.
Choice B: Ethambutol primarily inhibits cell wall synthesis and can cause optic neuritis.
Choice C: Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis and can cause hepatotoxicity.
Choice D: Rifampicin inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and can cause hepatotoxicity and drug interactions.
The process by which water is reabsorbed by following solutes when they are reabsorbed is called
- A. obligatory water reabsorption
- B. facultative water reabsorption
- C. osmotic water reabsorption
- D. renin-angiotensin water reabsorption
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: facultative water reabsorption. This process occurs in the collecting ducts of the nephron in the kidney, where water reabsorption is regulated based on the body's hydration levels. When solutes like sodium are reabsorbed, water follows passively through aquaporin channels, adjusting the amount of water reabsorbed according to the body's needs.
A: Obligatory water reabsorption refers to the constant reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle, not regulated based on hydration levels.
C: Osmotic water reabsorption is a general term referring to the movement of water based on osmotic gradients, not specifically regulated by solute reabsorption.
D: Renin-angiotensin water reabsorption involves the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in response to low blood pressure, focusing on sodium reabsorption rather than direct regulation of
Which of the following drug should be used only as clinical curative but not as prophylactic in malaria?:
- A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine
- B. Proguanil
- C. Primaquine
- D. Mefloquine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for clinical curative treatment of malaria, particularly for the eradication of hypnozoites in Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale infections. It is not used as a prophylactic drug due to its potential side effects, such as hemolysis in individuals with G6PD deficiency.
Choice A (Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine) is a combination used for both treatment and prophylaxis.
Choice B (Proguanil) is used for prophylaxis and treatment.
Choice D (Mefloquine) is used for both prophylaxis and treatment of malaria.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is essential in regulating blood pressure. Which of the following hormones involved in RAAS is produced by the kidney?
- A. Renin
- B. Angiotensin I
- C. Angiotensin II
- D. Aldosterone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Renin is produced and released by the kidney in response to low blood pressure or low sodium levels. Renin initiates the RAAS cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II, leading to vasoconstriction and aldosterone release. Aldosterone, produced by the adrenal glands, promotes sodium and water retention. Therefore, choice A is correct as renin is the hormone produced by the kidney to regulate blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are downstream products of the RAAS cascade and are not directly produced by the kidney.