Nokea
While a patient is receiving IV doxorubicin hydrochloride for the treatment of cancer, the nurse observes swelling and pain at the IV site. The nurse should prioritize what action?
- A. Stopping the administration of the drug immediately
- B. Notifying the patient's physician
- C. Continuing the infusion but decreasing the rate
- D. Applying a warm compress to the infusion site
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Doxorubicin's a vesicant swelling and pain scream extravasation, where it leaks into tissue, risking severe necrosis. Stopping the IV stat is priority to limit damage; delaying could worsen injury. Notifying the physician follows, but action comes first. Slowing the infusion keeps pumping toxin into the site disastrous. Warm compresses might spread the drug, unlike ice, which can help post-stoppage per protocol. Nurses must act fast, knowing vesicants like doxorubicin (an anthracycline) demand immediate cessation and often antidotes (e.g., dexrazoxane), critical in oncology to prevent permanent harm from chemo mishaps.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following statements is incorrect in describing the ADEC categorisation of drugs for Pregnancy?
- A. They are based on animal reproductive toxicology
- B. They are based on evidence available at the time of introduction of the drug
- C. The categorisations are revised as new evidence become available
- D. They are based on prospective studies
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: ADEC's pregnancy drug tags lean on animal data, initial evidence, and updates not prospective human studies, a gap. Animal tox sets baselines, launch data locks in, new proof shifts prospective's too slow. Pharmacists read this, a chronic caution grid.
A 72 years old man is diagnosed to have Type 2 DM, hypertension and hyperlipidemia with stage 3 chronic kidney disease. He is otherwise well and asymptomatic. He is referred to you for follow-up care. His blood pressure is 142/70 mmHg with HbA1c 6.5%. You would continue his following medications EXCEPT
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg OD
- B. Simvastatin 40 mg ON
- C. Aspirin 100 mg OD
- D. Glibenclamide 10 mg bid
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stage 3 CKD eGFR 30-59 means glibenclamide's out; it piles up, risking hypoglycemia in shaky kidneys. Thiazide holds BP, simvastatin guards lipids, aspirin shields heart, irbesartan protects kidneys all stay. Nurses swap sulphonylureas here, dodging chronic sugar crashes in fragile renal states.
Which of the following cancer patients could potentially be placed together as roommates?
- A. A patient with a neutrophil count of 1000/mm³
- B. A patient who underwent debulking of a tumor to relieve pressure
- C. A patient receiving high-dose chemotherapy after a bone marrow harvest
- D. A patient who is post-op laminectomy for spinal cord compression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Roommate pairing hinges on infection risk and care needs. The debulking patient tumor reduced for symptom relief and post-laminectomy patient spinal decompression both underwent palliative surgeries, not inherently immunocompromised, making them compatible. A neutrophil count of 1000/mm³ signals moderate neutropenia, needing isolation to dodge infections. High-dose chemotherapy post-bone marrow harvest obliterates immunity, demanding strict protection. The surgical pair's stability, lacking acute immune suppression, allows safe cohabitation, a nurse's practical call to optimize space and reduce cross-infection risks in cancer care settings.
A parent of a child with Wilms tumor asks the nurse about surgery. Which statement concerning the type of surgery for Wilms tumor is most accurate?
- A. Surgery is only done if chemotherapy and radiation fail.
- B. Surgery is usually performed within 24 to 48 hours of admission.
- C. Surgery is the least favorable therapy for the treatment of Wilms tumor.
- D. Surgery will be delayed until the child's overall health status improves.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Wilms tumor, a kidney cancer in children, is primarily treated with surgical resection (nephrectomy) as the cornerstone of therapy, typically performed within 24 to 48 hours of diagnosis to remove the tumor before it spreads. This urgency stems from its responsiveness to surgery and the need to stage the cancer accurately, guiding subsequent chemotherapy or radiation. Delaying surgery until chemotherapy or radiation fails is incorrect surgery is the initial step, not a last resort. It's not the least favorable option; rather, it's the preferred first-line treatment due to high cure rates when combined with adjuvant therapies. Waiting for health improvement isn't standard unless the child is critically unstable, which isn't typical at diagnosis. The nurse's accurate explanation reassures parents and underscores surgery's role, aligning with pediatric oncology protocols to optimize outcomes in Wilms tumor management.
An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hr in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider?
- A. Patient complains of severe fatigue.
- B. Patient voids every hour during the day.
- C. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks.
- D. Patient has crackles up to the midline posterior chest.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: High-rate fluids (175 mL/hr) plus chemo in an older colorectal patient can swamp the heart crackles to midline yell heart failure, trumping fatigue , peeing , or poor eating . Nurses in oncology flag this lungs drowning need stat help, a fluid overload crisis.