Nokea
You are monitoring your client who is at risk for spinal cord compression related to tumor growth. Which client statement is most likely to suggest early manifestation?
- A. Last night my back really hurt, and I had trouble sleeping
- B. My leg has been giving out when I try to stand
- C. My bowels are just not moving like they usually do
- D. When I try to pass my urine, I have difficulty starting the stream
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spinal cord compression from tumors strikes early with back pain reported in 95% of cases as vertebral pressure or nerve irritation flares, a red flag needing urgent imaging to prevent paralysis. Leg weakness signals motor loss, a later sign as compression worsens. Bowel or bladder issues like constipation or hesitancy mark advanced nerve involvement, not initial hints. Nurses prioritize this pain statement, recognizing its prevalence and timing, prompting swift action like steroids or surgery to halt progression, critical in cancer clients where spinal integrity dictates mobility and survival.
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Mr Yee, a 45-year-old, reports three recent gout attacks in the ankle or knee. You notice a small tophus over the left elbow. He says that two years ago he took allopurinol 100 mg for one month, then 200 mg OM for one month but stopped as it 'did not help his gout and there was no improvement'. When you probe, he states that he was not very adherent to allopurinol either then as it was some years ago, and he says he probably took it 'once or twice a week'. He states he did not experience any rashes or other side effects to it then. He does not drink alcohol except one glass of wine once or twice a year on special occasions. He has past history of renal stones and also underlying ischaemic cardiomyopathy for which he is still being followed up by the cardiologist. Two weeks ago, he was admitted to the hospital for a gout flare. He had a blood test done, with the following results: Uric acid 620 mmol/L, Creatinine 120 umol/L, eGFR 55 mL/min, BP 144/94 mmHg, he has Hypertension on HCTZ long-term. He is asking you to give him Arcoxia 120 mg OM standby as it usually works for his gout flare. Which is correct advice?
- A. Discuss HLA B5801 testing particularly as febuxostat is being prescribed for him
- B. Advise that he will need stepwise up-titration of allopurinol to reach the uric acid target. Regular blood tests will allow this to be done safely
- C. Advise that colchicine prophylaxis is helpful to prevent gout attacks and increase hydrochlorothiazide to optimise his BP control
- D. Offer to initiate probenecid immediately as allopurinol is ineffective
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tophus and frequent flares with uric acid 620 mmol/L indicate chronic gout needing ULT. Prior allopurinol failure' likely stems from non-adherence (once/twice weekly), not ineffectiveness. Stepwise up-titration of allopurinol, starting low (e.g., 100 mg) due to eGFR 55, with regular blood tests (uric acid, creatinine), targets <360 mmol/L safely, per ACR guidelines. HLA-B5801 testing is for high-risk groups (e.g., Han Chinese) before allopurinol, not febuxostat-specific here. Colchicine helps, but increasing HCTZ (urate-retaining) may worsen gout. Probenecid suits renal underexcretors, not proven here. This approach optimizes chronic gout control.
A nurse is caring for four clients with leukemia. After hand-off report, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. Client who had two bloody diarrhea stools this morning
- B. Client who has been premedicated for nausea prior to chemotherapy
- C. Client who is crying and feeling lonely
- D. Client with an unchanged lesion to the lower right lateral malleolus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Leukemia's marrow suppression risks bleeding two bloody stools signal GI hemorrhage, a potential emergency needing urgent assessment for stability, trumping others per ABCs. Premedicated nausea's managed, loneliness needs support but waits, and an unchanged lesion's stable. Nurses prioritize bleeding, anticipating labs or fluids, a life-saving call in this fragile hematologic lineup.
A 56-year-old patient comes to the walk-in clinic for scant rectal bleeding and intermittent diarrhea and constipation for the past several months. There is a history of polyps and a family history for colorectal cancer. While you are trying to teach about colonoscopy, the patient becomes angry and threatens to leave. What is the priority diagnosis?
- A. Diarrhea/Constipation related to altered bowel patterns
- B. Knowledge Deficit related to disease process and diagnostic procedure
- C. Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit related to rectal bleeding and diarrhea
- D. Anxiety related to unknown outcomes and perceived threat to body integrity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's anger and threat to leave during colonoscopy teaching signal emotional distress overriding physical symptoms. Anxiety stemming from uncertain outcomes and perceived bodily threat fits, as colorectal cancer risk tied to polyps and family history heightens fear, blocking education uptake. Diarrhea/constipation reflects symptoms but isn't immediately urgent with scant bleeding. Knowledge deficit exists but is secondary fear drives the refusal, not just ignorance. Fluid volume risk is plausible with bleeding, yet no data suggests acute loss; stability allows focus on emotions. Addressing anxiety first calms the patient, enabling teaching and care, a priority in this tense encounter where psychological barriers could delay critical colorectal screening and intervention.
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with atherosclerosis. Which of the following is considered a risk factor for the development of this disorder?
- A. Diet high in vitamin K
- B. Low HDL-C/High LDL-C
- C. High HDL-C/Low LDL-C
- D. Vegan diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atherosclerosis loves lipids low HDL (good cholesterol) and high LDL (bad cholesterol) pile plaque, a prime risk factor driving vessel narrowing. Vitamin K aids clotting, not plaque. High HDL/low LDL protects. Vegan diets cut fats, lowering risk. Nurses flag lipid imbalance, pushing statins or diet shifts, a cholesterol-fueled root of this vascular scourge.
Which enzyme is activated by oxidative stress in endothelial cells and plays a key role in the development of complications?
- A. GAPDH
- B. Glyoxalase-1
- C. PARP
- D. Transketolase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PARP wakes to oxidative hits repairs DNA, drives damage in diabetes vessels, not GAPDH's stall, glyoxalase's detox, or transketolase's shunt. Nurses clock this, a chronic complication cog.