Nokea
You are caring for a patient who takes an antiarrhythmic agent. What would be the priority nursing assessment before administering this drug?
- A. Assess pulses and blood pressure.
- B. Assess breath sounds.
- C. Assess mental status.
- D. Assess urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess pulses and blood pressure. Before administering an antiarrhythmic agent, it is essential to assess the patient's pulses and blood pressure because these medications can affect cardiac function, potentially causing bradycardia or hypotension. Monitoring these vital signs helps to ensure the patient's safety and allows for early detection of any adverse effects. Assessing breath sounds (B), mental status (C), and urine output (D) are important assessments but not the priority before administering an antiarrhythmic agent, as they are not directly related to the medication's potential immediate effects on cardiac function.
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A 6-year-old was complaining of elbow pain. The nurse will advise the patient to give which pain medication?
- A. Aleve.
- B. Motrin.
- C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol).
- D. Aspirin (Ecotin).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Acetaminophen (Tylenol). Acetaminophen is the safest pain medication for children due to its low risk of side effects like gastrointestinal irritation or bleeding, which can be more common with Aleve (A), Motrin (B), and Aspirin (D). Aspirin specifically is contraindicated in children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Acetaminophen is also preferred because it has antipyretic properties, making it effective for reducing fever in addition to pain relief. Ultimately, Acetaminophen is the best choice for a 6-year-old experiencing elbow pain due to its safety profile and effectiveness in managing pain and fever.
The nurse receives an order for a triptan for a patient diagnosed with a cluster headache. What drug should be indicated for this purpose?
- A. Sumatriptan (Imitrex).
- B. Naratriptan (Amerge).
- C. Frovatriptan (Frova).
- D. Almotriptan (Axert).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sumatriptan (Imitrex). Sumatriptan is the drug of choice for treating cluster headaches due to its rapid onset of action and high efficacy in relieving symptoms. It works by constricting blood vessels in the brain and blocking pain pathways. Naratriptan, Frovatriptan, and Almotriptan are also triptans but are not as effective or fast-acting as Sumatriptan for cluster headaches. Therefore, they are not the ideal choice. Summarily, Sumatriptan is the preferred option for managing cluster headaches due to its quick and potent action compared to other triptans.
The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old African American woman who was just prescribed an ACE inhibitor for the management of her hypertension. What should be advised related to contraception?
- A. No special precautions need to be taken.
- B. The use of spermicidal jellies is recommended.
- C. The minipill is the contraceptive of choice.
- D. Use barrier contraception to prevent pregnancy while taking these drugs.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use barrier contraception to prevent pregnancy while taking these drugs. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated during pregnancy as they can cause harm to the fetus. Therefore, advising the patient to use barrier contraception is essential to prevent pregnancy while on this medication. Choice A is incorrect because special precautions are indeed needed. Choice B is incorrect as spermicidal jellies do not provide effective contraception on their own. Choice C is incorrect as the minipill may not be sufficient to prevent pregnancy while on ACE inhibitors.
The nurse discovers a patient receiving warfarin is bleeding. What drug would the nurse prepare to counteract this drug?
- A. Vitamin E.
- B. Protamine Sulfate.
- C. Calcium Gluconate.
- D. Vitamin K.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, an anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps replenish the depleted clotting factors, stopping the bleeding. Other choices are incorrect because: A (Vitamin E) does not directly counteract warfarin's mechanism of action, B (Protamine Sulfate) is used to reverse heparin's effects, not warfarin, and C (Calcium Gluconate) is used for calcium channel blocker toxicity, not warfarin-induced bleeding.
What assessment finding would indicate the patient's left-sided heart failure is worsening?
- A. Increased jugular venous pressure.
- B. Liver enlargement.
- C. Increased pulse rate.
- D. Increased crackles in lung fields.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased crackles in lung fields. Worsening left-sided heart failure causes fluid to accumulate in the lungs, leading to crackles on auscultation. Increased jugular venous pressure (A) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure. Liver enlargement (B) is a sign of congestive hepatomegaly, common in right-sided heart failure. Increased pulse rate (C) may indicate heart failure exacerbation but is not specific to left-sided failure. Therefore, choice D is the best indicator of worsening left-sided heart failure.