The nurse is educating a patient about the role of luteal phase support in fertility treatments. What should be emphasized?
- A. It involves increasing estrogen levels to support ovulation.
- B. It requires progesterone supplementation to maintain uterine lining integrity.
- C. It eliminates the need for hormonal monitoring during treatments.
- D. It helps prevent the LH surge during ovulation induction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because luteal phase support is crucial in fertility treatments to maintain the uterine lining for potential embryo implantation. Progesterone supplementation is necessary to support this phase, as it ensures a hospitable environment for the embryo. Option A is incorrect because luteal phase support primarily focuses on progesterone, not estrogen. Option C is incorrect as hormonal monitoring is still essential during fertility treatments. Option D is incorrect because luteal phase support does not prevent the LH surge, which is necessary for ovulation.
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A couple inquires about the inheritance of Huntington's disease (HD) because the prospective father's mother is dying of the illness. There is no history of the disease in his partner's family. The man has never been tested for HD. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Because HD is an autosomal dominant disease
- B. each and every one of your children will have a 1 in 4 chance of having the disease.
- C. Because only one of you has a family history of HD
- D. the probability of any of your children having the disease is less than 10%.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Without testing, the exact risk cannot be determined, but each child has a 50% chance if the father carries the gene.
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. As the nurse is walking Lori to ultrasound, Lori mentions that over the past 12 hours she has experienced abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds. The nurse recognizes these signs and symptoms to be associated with what condition?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). OHSS is a potential complication of ovulation induction with medications like clomiphene citrate. The symptoms Lori is experiencing (abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain) are classic signs of moderate OHSS. The mechanism involves excessive response to the ovulation induction medication leading to enlarged ovaries and fluid accumulation in the abdomen. It is crucial to monitor patients on ovulation induction therapy for signs of OHSS to prevent severe complications.
Choice A: Ovulation - This is incorrect because the symptoms described are not typical of ovulation itself.
Choice B: Premenstrual syndrome - This is incorrect because the symptoms are not specific to premenstrual syndrome and are more indicative of a complication related to medication.
Choice D: Failed ovulation induction - This is incorrect because the symptoms suggest a response to the medication rather than a failure of ovulation.
What is the purpose of progesterone in supporting early pregnancy?
- A. To increase fetal growth rates.
- B. To maintain the uterine lining and prevent menstrual shedding.
- C. To stimulate ovulation during the menstrual cycle.
- D. To regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining to support implantation and prevent menstrual shedding. Progesterone prepares the uterus for the potential implantation of a fertilized egg by thickening the endometrium. If fertilization occurs, progesterone continues to support the pregnancy by ensuring the uterine lining remains intact to provide a nurturing environment for the developing embryo. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because progesterone's main function in early pregnancy is not to increase fetal growth rates, stimulate ovulation, or regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
Cervical mucus at ovulation should be:
- A. Thin and slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 cm.
- B. Cloudy with a mild odor and should stretch to at least 6 cm.
- C. Thick, clear, and of a large amount.
- D. Thin and tinged with a small amount of blood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cervical mucus at ovulation should be thin and slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 cm. This type of mucus indicates the fertile window and the best time for conception.
An infertile man is being treated with Viagra (sildenafil citrate) for erectile dysfunction (ED). Which of the following is a contraindication for this medication?
- A. Preexisting diagnosis of herpes simplex 2.
- B. Nitroglycerin ingestion for angina pectoris.
- C. Retinal damage from type I diabetes mellitus.
- D. Postsurgical care for resection of the prostate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Viagra interacts dangerously with nitroglycerin, potentially causing severe hypotension.