Which is a constellation of physical and psychological symptoms beginning in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and followed by a symptom-free period?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
- C. Premenstrual syndrome
- D. Depression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) occurs in the luteal phase due to hormonal changes.
2. PMS includes physical and psychological symptoms.
3. It is followed by a symptom-free period (during menstruation).
4. Endometriosis is a separate condition involving tissue growth outside the uterus.
5. Abnormal uterine bleeding refers to irregular bleeding patterns.
6. Depression is a mental health condition not specific to the menstrual cycle.
Summary:
PMS is the correct answer as it aligns with the timing, symptoms, and pattern described in the question. Endometriosis, abnormal uterine bleeding, and depression do not fully match the criteria provided.
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The nurse is caring for an Rh-negative mother on the postpartum unit. What scenario indicates the need to administer RhoGAM to this patient?
- A. She has had one Rh-negative child and is pregnant with an Rh-negative child.
- B. She has had an Rh-positive infant and is pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus.
- C. She has had an O-negative child and is pregnant with a B-negative child.
- D. She is a primipara with an O-negative child.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Rh-negative mother with Rh-positive infant: During delivery, fetal blood can mix with maternal blood leading to sensitization.
2. Sensitization can cause the mother's immune system to produce antibodies against Rh antigen.
3. RhoGAM is administered to prevent antibody formation in Rh-negative mothers carrying Rh-positive infants.
Summary:
- A: Incorrect. No risk of sensitization as both child and fetus are Rh-negative.
- B: Correct. Rh-negative mother with Rh-positive infant at risk for sensitization.
- C: Incorrect. Rh factor mismatch between children doesn't require RhoGAM.
- D: Incorrect. Being primipara or child's blood type doesn't warrant RhoGAM administration.
The pregnant woman who becomes infected with chickenpox should be taught to report promptly:
- A. Cough or dyspnea
- B. Severe skin itching
- C. Joint pain
- D. Increased urination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough or dyspnea. Chickenpox can lead to pneumonia in pregnant women, causing cough or dyspnea. Prompt reporting is crucial for timely intervention. B: Severe itching is common in chickenpox but not a critical symptom. C: Joint pain is not a typical complication of chickenpox. D: Increased urination is not directly related to chickenpox complications during pregnancy. It's important for the pregnant woman to be aware of respiratory symptoms as they can indicate a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention.
Which are major risk factors for breast cancer? Select all that apply.
- A. Female gender
- B. Increasing age over 50 years
- C. Personal history of breast cancer (in situ or invasive), family history of breast cancer in first-degree relatives (parent, sibling, child)
- D. High-fat diet, Alcohol consumption (two or more drinks/day)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because having a personal history of breast cancer, a family history of breast cancer in first-degree relatives, or both are major risk factors for developing breast cancer. This is due to the presence of genetic mutations that increase the likelihood of developing the disease. Choices A and B are not specific risk factors for breast cancer, although being female and increasing age are associated with higher risk. Choice D, high-fat diet and alcohol consumption, are not considered major risk factors for breast cancer.
A woman has been diagnosed with galactorrhea. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to see? Select all that apply.
- A. Milky white discharge from one or both nipples
- B. Absence of menstrual periods
- C. Temperature intolerance
- D. Less interest in sex
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Less interest in sex. Galactorrhea is the spontaneous flow of milk from the breast unassociated with childbirth or nursing. It is commonly caused by elevated levels of prolactin, which can suppress the production of sex hormones like estrogen and testosterone, leading to symptoms like decreased libido and less interest in sex. The other choices, A, B, and C, are incorrect because milky white discharge from nipples (A) is a symptom of galactorrhea, absence of menstrual periods (B) is more indicative of conditions like amenorrhea, and temperature intolerance (C) is not typically associated with galactorrhea.
According to the standard staging classification for breast cancer, which criteria reflects stage 2 breast cancer?
- A. Tumor smaller than 2 cm, no regional lymph node metastasis, no distant metastasis
- B. No evidence of tumor; metastasis to lymph nodes fixed to one another or to other structure but no distant metastasis
- C. Tumor larger than 5 cm; metastasis to lymph nodes fixed to one another or to other structure; no distant metastasis
- D. Tumor larger than 2 to 5 cm; no regional lymph node metastasis; no distant metastasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it aligns with the criteria for stage 2 breast cancer in the standard staging classification. In stage 2, the tumor is typically larger than 2 cm but not larger than 5 cm, there is no regional lymph node metastasis, and there are no distant metastases. Option A is incorrect because the tumor size is smaller than 2 cm, which does not meet the criteria for stage 2. Option B is incorrect as it describes no evidence of tumor with lymph node metastasis, which does not represent stage 2. Option C is incorrect as the tumor size is larger than 5 cm, exceeding the criteria for stage 2.