Nokea
The process of capacitation usually occurs in the _____.
- A. vagina
- B. testis
- C. prostate
- D. epididymis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The process of capacitation occurs in the female reproductive tract, specifically in the vagina. Capacitation is essential for sperm to fertilize an egg, where they undergo changes in the female reproductive tract to become more motile and capable of penetrating the egg. The vagina provides the ideal environment for capacitation to take place due to its specific pH, temperature, and components present in the cervical mucus. The other choices (B: testis, C: prostate, D: epididymis) are incorrect as capacitation is a process that occurs in the female reproductive tract, not in the male reproductive organs.
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The failure of a testes to descend is referred to as _____.
- A. inguinal hernia
- B. strangulated hernia
- C. vaginal process
- D. cryptorchidism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: cryptorchidism. This is because cryptorchidism specifically refers to the failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum. It is a common condition in newborns and can lead to complications if not treated.
A: Inguinal hernia is the protrusion of abdominal contents through the inguinal canal, not related to testes descent.
B: Strangulated hernia occurs when the blood supply to the herniated tissue is cut off, not related to testes descent.
C: Vaginal process is a structure involved in testicular descent but does not describe the failure of testes descent itself.
Summary:
Cryptorchidism is the correct term for undescended testes, while the other options are unrelated conditions.
A female athlete who took testosterone-like steroids for several months stopped having normal menstrual cycles. What is the best explanation for this observation?
- A. Testosterone stimulates inhibin production from the corpus luteum
- B. Testosterone binds to receptors in the endometrium, resulting in the endometrium’s failure to develop during the normal cycle
- C. Testosterone binds to receptors in the anterior pituitary that stimulate the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
- D. Testosterone inhibits the hypothalamic secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and the pituitary secretion of LH and FSH
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because testosterone inhibits the hypothalamic secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and the pituitary secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). This disruption in the normal hormonal feedback loop leads to the suppression of ovulation and the menstrual cycle. Option A is incorrect because inhibin is not directly affected by testosterone. Option B is incorrect as testosterone does not bind to endometrial receptors directly. Option C is incorrect because testosterone does not stimulate the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary.
Why should a nurse educate women to have regular gynecologic examinations and Pap tests?
- A. It helps decide the mode of surgical treatment.
- B. It is the best cure for most infections.
- C. It increases the potential for an early diagnosis.
- D. It is an inexpensive test.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Regular screenings increase the likelihood of early detection and treatment of conditions like cervical cancer.
Absence of menstruation
- A. Rhinorrhea
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Menorrhagia
- D. Leucorrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation, which can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, stress, pregnancy, or medical conditions. Rhinorrhea (A) is the medical term for a runny nose, unrelated to menstruation. Menorrhagia (C) is excessive menstrual bleeding, the opposite of absence of menstruation. Leucorrhea (D) is a vaginal discharge, not related to the absence of menstruation. Therefore, B is the correct answer as it directly addresses the absence of menstruation.
A nurse is working with a client who has undergone chemotherapy for breast cancer. The client is experiencing body image disturbances. Which of the following symptoms would contribute to this psychosocial issue?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Vomiting
- C. Hair loss
- D. Nausea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hair loss is a visible side effect of chemotherapy that can significantly impact body image.