A nurse is instructing a client on taking her basal body temperature. The nurse understands that this test is used to determine which of the following?
- A. If the client's cervical mucus contains enough estrogen to support sperm motility.
- B. If the client's temperature rises 1 to 5 days after the midcycle.
- C. If surgical correction of uterine pathology is needed.
- D. If the client is experiencing blockage of the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because basal body temperature rises 1 to 5 days after ovulation, indicating that ovulation has occurred. This is important for tracking fertility and planning conception.
A is incorrect because basal body temperature is not used to determine estrogen levels in cervical mucus.
C is incorrect because basal body temperature is not used to diagnose uterine pathology.
D is incorrect because basal body temperature does not assess blockages in the uterine cavity or fallopian tubes.
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What is the purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments?
- A. To trigger ovulation directly.
- B. To prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation.
- C. To stimulate the growth of the uterine lining.
- D. To improve egg quality in natural cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments is to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation. GnRH antagonists work by blocking the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which can trigger premature ovulation. This allows for better control of the timing of ovulation in assisted reproductive techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not trigger ovulation directly; they prevent it. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the growth of the uterine lining is typically achieved through other medications like estrogen. Choice D is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not directly improve egg quality; they primarily target ovulation timing.
A couple is learning about assisted reproductive technologies (ART). Which method involves retrieving eggs and fertilizing them outside the body?
- A. Intrauterine insemination (IUI)
- B. In-vitro fertilization (IVF)
- C. Ovarian stimulation
- D. Egg freezing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In-vitro fertilization (IVF). In IVF, eggs are retrieved from the ovaries and fertilized with sperm in a laboratory dish. This method involves fertilization outside the body, making it the correct choice.
A: Intrauterine insemination (IUI) involves placing washed sperm directly into the uterus, not fertilizing eggs outside the body.
C: Ovarian stimulation is a process to stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs but does not involve fertilization outside the body.
D: Egg freezing is a method where eggs are frozen for future use but does not involve fertilization outside the body.
A patient asks for advice regarding whether to have children in the future after hearing she is a carrier for an autosomal-recessive disorder. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Encourage the patient to avoid having children as the risk of having a child with a disorder is 50%.
- B. Explain that if the patient proceeds with a pregnancy, her risk of having a child with a disorder is 25% because she is only a carrier.
- C. Encourage the patient to pursue pregnancy, informing her that she can always terminate a pregnancy if the fetus is found to be affected.
- D. Ask the patient to describe her feelings about potentially having an affected infant.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates empathy, promotes open communication, and supports patient autonomy. By asking the patient to describe her feelings, the nurse can understand her emotional state, values, and beliefs, which are crucial in decision-making. This approach encourages shared decision-making and allows the nurse to provide individualized support.
Choice A is incorrect because it is overly deterministic and does not consider individual circumstances. Choice B is incorrect as it simplifies the genetic risk calculation and overlooks the emotional aspect of decision-making. Choice C is incorrect as it may not respect the patient's autonomy and fails to address the emotional and ethical complexities involved in such a decision.
What is the primary goal of using gonadotropins in fertility treatments?
- A. To suppress ovulation for egg preservation.
- B. To stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs.
- C. To prevent hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle.
- D. To enhance uterine lining growth for implantation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of using gonadotropins in fertility treatments is to stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs. This increases the chances of successful fertilization and pregnancy. Gonadotropins mimic the natural hormones that regulate ovulation and stimulate the growth of follicles in the ovaries. By producing multiple eggs, there is a higher likelihood of at least one egg being successfully fertilized.
Choice A is incorrect because gonadotropins actually stimulate ovulation rather than suppress it.
Choice C is incorrect as gonadotropins do not prevent hormonal fluctuations but rather help regulate and induce controlled hormonal changes.
Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of using gonadotropins is not to enhance uterine lining growth but rather to stimulate egg production in the ovaries.
A woman has been advised that the reason she has had a number of spontaneous abortions is because she has an inheritable mutation. Which of the following situations is consistent with this statement?
- A. A client developed skin cancer after being exposed to the sun.
- B. A client developed colon cancer from an inherited dominant gene.
- C. A reciprocal translocation was reported on a client's genetic analysis.
- D. A client's left arm failed to develop when she was a fetus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reciprocal translocations can disrupt genes and lead to recurrent miscarriages.