Nokea
A patient has undergone the creation of an Indiana been asked about actions to reduce the risk of bladder pouch for the treatment of bladder cancer. The nurse
- A. addresses a major risk factor for bladder cancer? How can the nurse best address the effects of this
- B. Smoking cessation urinary diversion on the patients body image?
- C. Reduction of alcohol intake
- D. Emphasize that the diversion is an integral part of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because addressing a major risk factor for bladder cancer, such as smoking, is crucial in preventing recurrence. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for bladder cancer, so educating the patient on smoking cessation is essential. This step can significantly reduce the risk of developing bladder cancer again.
Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on body image concerns, which are important but not directly related to reducing the risk of bladder cancer. Choice C is incorrect because while reducing alcohol intake is beneficial for overall health, it is not a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address a specific risk factor for bladder cancer like smoking does.
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A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics.
- B. Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
- C. Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease – the most common cause of infertility.
- D. Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it aligns with standard medical guidelines. Couples are typically considered infertile after 1 year of trying to conceive without success. This timeframe allows for natural variations in fertility and is when medical intervention is usually recommended.
A: Ascertain antibiotic use is not the first step as it may not be directly related to infertility.
C: Referring to pelvic inflammatory disease assumes a diagnosis without proper evaluation.
D: Incorrect timeline of 3 months and immediate referral to a fertility expert is premature without giving time for natural conception.
A 50-year-old woman reports that she has been experiencing hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. The nurse suspects that she is in the peri-menopausal stage. What is the primary reason for these symptoms?
- A. Decreased estrogen levels.
- B. Increased estrogen levels.
- C. Hormonal fluctuations.
- D. Psychological stress.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: I must clarify that the correct answer should be A: Decreased estrogen levels. In the peri-menopausal stage, a woman's ovaries produce less estrogen, leading to symptoms like hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. Option B is incorrect because increased estrogen levels are not typical during peri-menopause. Option C is vague and does not specifically address the primary reason for the symptoms. Option D, psychological stress, may exacerbate symptoms but is not the primary cause in this scenario.
Which hormone plays a central role in determining the rate of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion?
- A. Insulin
- B. aldosterone
- C. BNP
- D. ANP
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: aldosterone. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that regulates sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion in the kidneys. It increases the reabsorption of sodium and water while promoting the excretion of potassium. This helps maintain electrolyte balance and blood pressure.
A: Insulin mainly regulates blood sugar levels by promoting glucose uptake into cells.
C: BNP (Brain Natriuretic Peptide) is involved in regulating fluid balance and blood pressure but not specifically sodium reabsorption.
D: ANP (Atrial Natriuretic Peptide) also plays a role in regulating fluid balance and blood pressure, but it promotes sodium excretion instead of reabsorption.
Which of the following statement(s) about metronidazole is correct?: *
- A. It is a rst line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess
- B. It is activated nitro intermediates bind DNA and inhibit anaerobe replication
- C. It is the most effective drug in eradicating amoebic cysts from the colon
- D. (
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antibiotic that requires activation by bacterial reductases to form nitro intermediates.
2. These activated intermediates bind DNA, leading to DNA strand breakage and inhibition of anaerobic bacterial replication.
3. This mechanism of action makes metronidazole effective against anaerobic bacteria.
4. Choice A is incorrect as metronidazole is not the first-line drug for amoebic dysentery or liver abscess - it is mainly used for anaerobic infections.
5. Choice C is incorrect as metronidazole is not the most effective drug for eradicating amoebic cysts in the colon; other drugs like tinidazole are preferred for that purpose.
6. Choice D is incomplete and does not provide any information related to metronidazole's mechanism of action.
A patient has very high plasma uric acid and has high risk of developing acute * uric acid nephropathy. Which of the following agent should be avoided?
- A. Ethacrynic acid
- B. Acetazolamide
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acetazolamide. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that can worsen hyperuricemia by increasing renal uric acid reabsorption. This can further exacerbate the risk of acute uric acid nephropathy. Ethacrynic acid (A), Hydrochlorothiazide (C), and Furosemide (D) are loop diuretics that can actually help in reducing uric acid levels by increasing its excretion through the urine. Therefore, they would not be contraindicated in this scenario.