Nokea
Diabetes Mellitus Is a Hormonal Condition in Which
- A. Ketone bodies increases in urine
- B. Ketone bodies decreases in urine
- C. Urine becomes more dilute
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Diabetes Mellitus is a condition where the body cannot properly regulate blood sugar levels due to insufficient insulin production. This leads to increased breakdown of fats for energy, resulting in the production of ketone bodies. Ketone bodies are acidic and are excreted in urine, causing ketonuria. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Ketone bodies do not decrease in urine in Diabetes Mellitus.
C: Urine does not become more dilute in Diabetes Mellitus; instead, it may become more concentrated due to increased excretion of glucose and ketone bodies.
D: This choice is incorrect as Diabetes Mellitus does affect urine composition by increasing ketone bodies.
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Which of the following evidences anticholinergic side effects:
- A. Excessive salivation
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Diarrhea and colic
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia. Anticholinergic medications block the action of acetylcholine, leading to increased heart rate (tachycardia) by inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Excessive salivation (choice A) is a cholinergic effect, not anticholinergic. Bradycardia (choice B) is not consistent with anticholinergic side effects. Diarrhea and colic (choice C) are more commonly associated with cholinergic, not anticholinergic, effects.
The nurse is assessing a client who exhibits spontaneous spasm of the fingers or toes, mouth twitching or jaw tightening when he taps the cheek anteriorly to the earlobe. What sign does the nurse identify to document in the chart that is consistent with tetany?
- A. Lhermitte's sign
- B. Trousseau's sign
- C. Chvostek's sign
- D. Bulge sign
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chvostek's sign is a positive sign of tetany, where tapping the cheek causes twitching of the facial muscles, indicating low calcium levels.
A 35-year-old female presents to your office for a regular check-up. Her only complaint is recurrent migraine headaches, which have increased in frequency over the years. On examination, her blood pressure is elevated at 150/70. You decide to start her on antihypertensive therapy that is also used for prophylaxis of migraines. Which medication is it?
- A. Clonidine
- B. Prazosin
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Propranolol
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propranolol. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that is commonly used for migraine prophylaxis. It helps reduce the frequency and severity of migraines by blocking the action of adrenaline on blood vessels in the brain. In this case, the patient has elevated blood pressure and migraines, so starting her on propranolol can address both issues effectively.
Choice A: Clonidine is an alpha-2 agonist used for hypertension, but it is not commonly used for migraine prophylaxis.
Choice B: Prazosin is an alpha-1 blocker primarily used for the treatment of hypertension, but it is not typically used for migraine prophylaxis.
Choice C: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic used for hypertension by reducing blood volume, but it is not effective for migraine prophylaxis.
In summary, propranolol is the most appropriate choice as it addresses both the elevated blood pressure and the recurrent
Insulin:
- A. stimulates the formation of glycogen.
- B. increases the transport of glucose into a cell.
- C. stimulates the synthesis of proteins and fats.
- D. all is applicable.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because insulin plays a crucial role in various metabolic processes. Firstly, insulin stimulates the formation of glycogen by promoting the uptake of glucose into the liver and muscles for storage. Secondly, it increases the transport of glucose into cells, regulating blood sugar levels. Lastly, insulin also stimulates the synthesis of proteins and fats by promoting the uptake of amino acids and fatty acids into cells. Therefore, all the statements in option D are correct based on the functions of insulin.
Which of the following posterior pituitary hormones causes the kidney to decrease its excretion of urine?
- A. ADH
- B. ACTH
- C. Aldosterone
- D. Oxytocin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: A (ADH)
Rationale:
1. ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption, leading to decreased urine output.
2. ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone) stimulates the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.
3. Aldosterone acts on the kidneys to regulate electrolyte balance, not directly affecting urine volume.
4. Oxytocin primarily functions in uterine contractions and milk ejection, not in kidney function.