Intravenous furosemide is an alternative potent diuretic to Mannitol in the * treatment of the following condition:
- A. Cardiac edema
- B. Cerebral edema
- C. Cirrhotic edema
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Mannitol is typically used for cerebral edema due to its osmotic diuretic properties that reduce intracranial pressure. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used for conditions like pulmonary edema. Therefore, intravenous furosemide is an alternative potent diuretic to Mannitol in the treatment of cerebral edema.
Summary:
A: Cardiac edema - Loop diuretics like furosemide are commonly used in cardiac edema, not Mannitol.
C: Cirrhotic edema - Loop diuretics are used in cirrhotic edema, but Mannitol is not typically indicated.
D: Pulmonary edema - Furosemide is commonly used in pulmonary edema, but Mannitol is not indicated for this condition.
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A patient has low cardiac output due to poor cardiac function. He is eclematous. Which one of the following should be avoided because it can aggravate cardiac dysfunctions?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Mannitol
- D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can worsen heart failure by increasing plasma volume and exacerbating the workload on the heart. Furosemide (A) and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) are loop and thiazide diuretics, respectively, commonly used to manage fluid overload in heart failure patients. Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can be beneficial in heart failure by counteracting potassium loss caused by other diuretics.
Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s):
- A. Staphylococci
- B. Streptococci
- C. Gonococci
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cloxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against Staphylococci. Staphylococci commonly cause skin and soft tissue infections. Streptococci are not typically treated with cloxacillin. Gonococci are not susceptible to cloxacillin. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it is the only organism listed that is indicated for treatment with cloxacillin.
Which is not a relatively common finding in ESRF patients?
- A. Metastatic calcification.
- B. Peripheral neuropathy
- C. Hypophosphatemia
- D. Hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypophosphatemia. In end-stage renal failure (ESRF) patients, hypophosphatemia is not a common finding due to impaired renal excretion of phosphate. Metastatic calcification (A) occurs due to high calcium-phosphate product, peripheral neuropathy (B) can result from uremic toxins, and hyperparathyroidism (D) is common in ESRF due to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Therefore, hypophosphatemia is the least likely finding in ESRF patients.
A 35 year old man presents to the ER with severe headache. After lab workup, patient is diagnosed to have increased intracranial pressure. Which diuretic would work best to reduce this pressure?
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide
- B. Mannitol
- C. Acetazolamide
- D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and reducing intracranial pressure. It is commonly used in cases of increased intracranial pressure due to its ability to easily cross the blood-brain barrier and reduce cerebral edema. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic mainly used for hypertension and not effective for this condition. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that can reduce CSF production but is not as effective as mannitol for rapid reduction of intracranial pressure. Furosemide (D) is a loop diuretic that primarily acts on the kidneys and is not as effective as mannitol for reducing intracranial pressure.
The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: *
- A. Inhibition of viral protease enzyme
- B. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesis
- C. Interaction with the viral M2 protein
- D. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Interaction with the viral M2 protein. Amantadine blocks the M2 ion channel of the influenza A virus, preventing the release of viral RNA into the host cell. This inhibits the viral replication process. Option A is incorrect as amantadine does not target viral protease enzymes. Option B is incorrect as amantadine does not inhibit viral RNA-mediated DNA synthesis, which is a process specific to retroviruses. Option D is incorrect as amantadine does not interact with virus-directed thymidine kinase, which is involved in the activation of certain antiviral medications.