Nokea
Iron is absorbed in:
- A. The stomach
- B. The ileum
- C. The jejunum
- D. The duodenum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Iron is primarily absorbed in the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine. The duodenum is where iron is released from food and converted into a form that can be absorbed by the body. The acidic environment in the stomach helps to break down iron-containing compounds, but actual absorption occurs in the duodenum. The ileum and jejunum are also parts of the small intestine, but they are not the primary sites of iron absorption. The stomach is involved in initial digestion but not in the absorption of iron. Therefore, the correct answer is D, the duodenum.
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Transferring patient with CML to LTC. Most important info for LTC nurse?
- A. Philadelphia chromosome present
- B. Glucose elevated from prednisone
- C. 20-lb weight loss
- D. Neutropenia from chemo
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because neutropenia (low neutrophil count) from chemotherapy puts the patient at high risk for infections. This information is crucial for the LTC nurse to monitor the patient closely, implement infection control measures, and promptly recognize and manage any signs of infection to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in the context of patient safety and immediate care needs compared to neutropenia. A: Philadelphia chromosome is important for diagnosis but does not impact immediate care in LTC. B: Elevated glucose may require monitoring but is not as urgent as neutropenia. C: Weight loss is concerning but not as immediately life-threatening as neutropenia.
Why do clients with COPD tend to be polycythemic?
- A. Side effects of bronchodilation meds
- B. Overactive bone marrow from chronic disease
- C. Combats anemia from increased metabolic rate
- D. Compensates for tissue hypoxia from lung disease
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because polycythemia is a compensatory mechanism in response to tissue hypoxia in clients with COPD. As the lungs are unable to efficiently oxygenate the blood due to the lung disease, the body produces more red blood cells to increase oxygen-carrying capacity and compensate for the decreased oxygen levels. Choices A and C are incorrect because they do not directly address the underlying cause of polycythemia in COPD. Choice B is incorrect as overactive bone marrow is not the primary reason for polycythemia in COPD.
An individual who has had chicken pox rarely gets the disease again. This situation is an example of
- A. biological control
- B. negative feedback
- C. active immunity
- D. passive immunity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Active immunity is when the body produces its antibodies after being exposed to a specific pathogen.
2. When someone has chicken pox, their immune system creates memory cells that recognize the virus.
3. If exposed to the virus again, the memory cells quickly respond, preventing re-infection.
4. This demonstrates active immunity as the individual's immune system actively defends against the pathogen.
Summary:
A: Biological control does not apply as it refers to natural predators controlling pest populations.
B: Negative feedback is a regulatory mechanism in the body, not related to immunity.
D: Passive immunity involves receiving pre-formed antibodies, not the body's own immune response like in the case of chicken pox.
A nurse is caring for a client who has an abdominal aortic aneurysm and is scheduled for surgery. The client's vital signs are blood pressure 160/98 mm Hg, heart rate 102/min, respirations 22/min, and SpO2 95%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medication for blood pressure.
- B. Increase IV fluids
- C. Monitor without intervention
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antihypertensive medication for blood pressure. Step-by-step rationale: 1. An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a serious condition that can lead to rupture if not managed properly. 2. The client's elevated blood pressure of 160/98 mm Hg can increase the risk of rupture. 3. Administering antihypertensive medication can help lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of rupture. 4. By managing the blood pressure, the nurse is helping to stabilize the client before surgery. Summary of other choices: B: Increasing IV fluids may not directly address the elevated blood pressure and can potentially worsen the situation. C: Monitoring without intervention may lead to a missed opportunity to prevent a potential rupture. D: Administering oxygen is not the priority action in this scenario; addressing the elevated blood pressure is crucial.
A child diagnosed with a Wilms tumor is prescribed chemotherapy. Which laboratory test will the nurse monitor prior to administering the chemotherapy to determine the child’s infection-fighting capability?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Red-blood-cell count
- C. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)
- D. Platelets
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absolute neutrophil count (ANC). Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in fighting infections. Chemotherapy can suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in neutrophil count, putting the child at risk for infections. Monitoring ANC before chemotherapy helps determine the child's infection-fighting capability.
A: Hemoglobin - Measures oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, not directly related to infection-fighting capability.
B: Red-blood-cell count - Measures the number of red blood cells, not directly related to infection-fighting capability.
D: Platelets - Important for blood clotting, not directly related to infection-fighting capability.