Hematologic System Assessment Questions

Hematologic System Assessment Questions Related

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One similarity between cell receptors and antibodies is that both

  • A. are produced by nerve cells
  • B. are highly specific in their actions
  • C. slow the rates of chemical reactions
  • D. are involved in digestion
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Both cell receptors and antibodies are highly specific in their actions. Cell receptors recognize and bind to specific molecules, triggering cellular responses. Antibodies are produced by the immune system to specifically target and neutralize foreign pathogens. This specificity is crucial for their functions.

A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: Cell receptors and antibodies are not produced by nerve cells. Cell receptors are typically found on the surface of various cell types, while antibodies are produced by B cells in the immune system.
C: Cell receptors and antibodies do not slow the rates of chemical reactions. Their primary function is not to catalyze or inhibit chemical reactions.
D: Cell receptors and antibodies are not directly involved in digestion. Digestion primarily involves enzymes and other digestive processes within the gastrointestinal tract.

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Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Evaluation of RBC saturation with Hb, 32-36%

  • A. MCV
  • B. MCH
  • C. MCHC
  • D. RDW
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: MCHC. MCHC stands for Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration, which is a measure of the average concentration of hemoglobin in a given volume of packed red blood cells. In this case, a saturation of 32-36% indicates the concentration of hemoglobin in the red blood cells. MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) measures the average volume of a red blood cell, MCH (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin) measures the average amount of hemoglobin in a red blood cell, and RDW (Red Cell Distribution Width) measures the variation in red blood cell size. These parameters do not directly indicate the saturation of hemoglobin in red blood cells, making them incorrect choices for this scenario.

A 60-year-old woman with DVT after flight, on heparin. Next diagnostic tests?

  • A. Factor V Leiden test
  • B. Protein C, S, antithrombin III levels
  • C. Antiphospholipid antibody test
  • D. No further testing
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: No further testing. In this scenario, the patient has a clear risk factor for DVT (long flight) and is already on anticoagulation therapy. Further diagnostic tests are not necessary for the management of acute DVT in this case. Testing for Factor V Leiden or Protein C, S, antithrombin III levels would not change the management at this point. Antiphospholipid antibody test is not indicated as there are no signs or symptoms suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The most appropriate action is to continue the current treatment and monitor the patient's response.

During a 4-month-old’s well-child check, the nurse discusses introduction of solid foods into the infant’s diet and concerns for foods commonly associated with food allergies. Due to allergies, which foods will the nurse instruction the parents to avoid until after 1 year of age?

  • A. Strawberries, eggs, and wheat
  • B. Peas, tomatoes, and spinach
  • C. Carrots, beets, and spinach
  • D. Squash, pork, and tomatoes
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (Strawberries, eggs, and wheat) because these foods are common allergens that should be avoided until after 1 year of age to reduce the risk of food allergies. Strawberries are highly allergenic, eggs contain proteins that may trigger allergies, and wheat contains gluten which can cause sensitivities. Peas, tomatoes, and spinach (choice B) are generally safe to introduce to infants. Carrots, beets, and spinach (choice C) are also safe options. Squash, pork, and tomatoes (choice D) are not commonly associated with food allergies in infants.

Which medication should be taken in the morning to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis?

  • A. Cyclophosphamide
  • B. Methotrexate
  • C. Leflunomide
  • D. Adalimumab
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cyclophosphamide. Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a side effect, which is less likely to occur if taken in the morning due to the diurnal variation in bladder toxicity. Methotrexate, Leflunomide, and Adalimumab are not associated with hemorrhagic cystitis and do not require specific timing for administration to prevent this side effect.

Which usually rare cancer is associated with HIV?

  • A. Astrocytoma
  • B. Mesothelioma
  • C. Penile cancer
  • D. Kaposi's sarcoma
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi's sarcoma. This rare cancer is associated with HIV due to its link with weakened immune systems. HIV compromises the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to developing Kaposi's sarcoma. Astrocytoma, mesothelioma, and penile cancer are not commonly associated with HIV. Kaposi's sarcoma is characterized by skin lesions and can also affect internal organs, making it a distinctive cancer seen in HIV-positive individuals.