Nokea
Retroflexion, or backward flexion, is the normal position of the uterus.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. NA
- D. NA
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Retroflexion is not the normal position of the uterus.
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For both males and females, which is the first hormone secreted to initiate puberty?
- A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- B. Estrogen
- C. Testosterone
- D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). GnRH is the first hormone secreted to initiate puberty. It acts on the pituitary gland to stimulate the release of FSH and LH, which then stimulate the production of sex hormones like estrogen and testosterone. FSH and LH regulate the maturation of ovarian follicles in females and sperm production in males. Estrogen and testosterone are produced in response to FSH and LH, so they are not the first hormones secreted to initiate puberty. Thus, GnRH is the primary hormone that kickstarts the puberty process by signaling the release of FSH and LH.
A young woman is giving her menstrual history to the nurse. She is concerned about a short-lived pain that sometimes occurs on either the right or left side of her lower abdomen about 2 weeks before her period is due to begin. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “This pain is probably related to ovulation and is not uncommon.â€
- B. “The pain may be caused by abnormal hormone levels, so the levels should be checked.â€
- C. “Don’t worry, this is to be expected in young women.â€
- D. “There might be some structural abnormality that should be assessed further.â€
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "This pain is probably related to ovulation and is not uncommon." This response is the best because the pain described by the young woman aligns with symptoms of ovulation pain, known as mittelschmerz. This type of pain typically occurs around the time of ovulation and is considered normal. It is a common experience for many women and does not usually indicate any underlying health issues.
Choice B is incorrect because abnormal hormone levels are not typically the cause of ovulation pain. Choice C is incorrect as dismissing the woman's concerns without providing reassurance or information is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication from the history provided that there is a structural abnormality that needs further assessment.
In summary, the correct response acknowledges the normalcy of the pain experienced by the young woman and provides reassurance based on the symptoms described.
A young female patient comes to the health unit at school to discuss her irregular periods. In providing education regardinNg thRe feImalGe reBpr.odCuctMive cycle, the nurse describes the regular U S N T O and recurrent changes related to the ovaries and the uterine endometrium. Although this is generally referred to as the menstrual cycle, the ovarian cycle includes which phases? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Follicular
- B. Ovulatory
- C. Luteal
- D. Proliferative
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Follicular phase. The ovarian cycle consists of two main phases: the follicular phase and the luteal phase. During the follicular phase, the ovarian follicles mature in preparation for ovulation. This phase is characterized by rising levels of estrogen. The luteal phase follows ovulation and is characterized by the formation of the corpus luteum and increased progesterone levels to support a potential pregnancy. The ovulatory phase is not a distinct phase of the ovarian cycle but rather the event of ovulation itself. Proliferative phase is a term used to describe changes in the uterine endometrium, not the ovarian cycle. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it accurately reflects the phases of the ovarian cycle.
Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the:
- A. Ovary
- B. Fallopian tube
- C. Uterus
- D. Vagina
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fertilization typically occurs in the fallopian tube, specifically in the ampulla region.
The drug of choice to treat a gonorrhea infection is
- A. penicillin G (Pfizerpen).
- B. tetracycline (Achromycin).
- C. ceftriaxone (Rocephin).
- D. acyclovir (Zovirax).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Gonorrhea is caused by a bacteria called Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
2. Over time, Neisseria gonorrhoeae has developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline.
3. Ceftriaxone is the recommended treatment due to its effectiveness against resistant strains.
4. Acyclovir is used to treat viral infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea.
Summary:
- Penicillin and tetracycline are no longer effective due to resistance.
- Ceftriaxone is the current drug of choice for gonorrhea treatment.
- Acyclovir is not used for bacterial infections like gonorrhea.