Nokea
The fructose in semen is secreted by
- A. the epididymis.
- B. the seminiferous tubules.
- C. the seminal vesicles.
- D. the prostate glands.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the seminal vesicles. Seminal vesicles secrete fructose in semen to provide energy for sperm motility. This process occurs after sperm leave the epididymis and seminiferous tubules, ruling out choices A and B. The prostate glands contribute to the alkaline fluid in semen, not fructose, eliminating choice D. Therefore, choice C is correct due to its role in providing energy for sperm function.
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While working on the hospital surgical unit, you are assigned to care for a client who has had a right breast lumpectomy and axillary lymph node dissection. Which task included in this client's care can you delegate to a nursing assistant?
- A. Teach the client why blood pressure measurements are taken on the left arm.
- B. Elevate the client's arm on two pillows to promote lymphatic drainage.
- C. Assess the client's right arm for lymphedema.
- D. Wrap the client's right arm with elastic bandages.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevating the arm is a simple task that can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant.
Which of the following structures are located inferior to the prostate on either side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum?
- A. bulbourethral gland
- B. Seminal vesicles
- C. Ejaculatory ducts
- D. Urethral ducts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: bulbourethral gland. These glands are located inferior to the prostate on either side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum. They secrete a clear mucus-like fluid that neutralizes acidic urine in the urethra.
The other choices are incorrect:
B: Seminal vesicles are located posterior to the bladder and contribute to seminal fluid production.
C: Ejaculatory ducts connect the vas deferens to the urethra and are not located in the deep muscles of the perineum.
D: Urethral ducts are not a specific anatomical structure and do not exist in this context.
Why is milk produced only after delivery, not before?
- A. Levels of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone are too low during pregnancy to support milk production
- B. High levels of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy suppress milk production
- C. The alveolar cells of the breast do not reach maturity until after delivery
- D. High levels of oxytocin are required for milk production to begin, and oxytocin is not secreted until the baby stimulates the nipple
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - High levels of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy suppress milk production.
Rationale:
1. Progesterone and estrogen levels are high during pregnancy to maintain the uterine lining and support fetal development.
2. These hormones inhibit the action of prolactin, the hormone responsible for milk production.
3. As a result, the mammary glands are prevented from producing milk until after delivery when progesterone and estrogen levels drop.
4. Once these hormone levels decrease, prolactin can initiate milk production in response to the baby's demand for feeding.
Summary of other choices:
A: Levels of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone do not directly impact milk production during pregnancy.
C: Alveolar cells of the breast may have some developmental changes during pregnancy, but it is not the primary reason for milk production post-delivery.
D: Oxytocin is involved in milk ejection, not milk production, and its release is
Which patient does the nurse recognize as having the highest risk for ovarian cancer?
- A. A 24-year-old nulliparous woman who has a history of multiple sexual partners
- B. A 32-year-old woman who has had six live births and a history of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
- C. A 55-year-old woman who reached menarche at age 12 and menopause at age 54
- D. A 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is a 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years. Nulliparity (never giving birth) and prolonged use of hormone replacement therapy are both risk factors for ovarian cancer. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence in women over 60.
Choice A is incorrect because although having multiple sexual partners may increase the risk of certain sexually transmitted infections, it is not a direct risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because while HPV infection is associated with cervical cancer, it is not a known risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice C is incorrect because the age of menarche and menopause are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer.
In summary, the correct answer, D, combines the highest risk factors for ovarian cancer, which are nulliparity, prolonged hormone replacement therapy, and older age.
Removal of internal organs from a body cavity
- A. Conization
- B. Exenteration
- C. Dissection
- D. Cauterization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Exenteration involves the removal of internal organs from a body cavity, often performed in cases of advanced cancer or severe infection. This procedure is extensive, removing multiple organs or structures within a body cavity. Conization is a surgical procedure to remove a cone-shaped piece of tissue, typically from the cervix. Dissection involves cutting through tissues for examination or study, not necessarily removing organs. Cauterization is the process of burning tissue to stop bleeding or remove unwanted tissue, not specifically related to removal of organs from a body cavity. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it specifically describes the removal of internal organs from a body cavity.