Nokea
The highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous * enterocolitis has been noted with the use of:
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Chloramphenicol
- C. Vancomycin
- D. Clindamycin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is associated with a high incidence of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis due to its strong impact on disrupting the normal gut flora, leading to overgrowth of Clostridium difficile. This bacterium can produce toxins causing inflammation and pseudomembrane formation in the colon. Ampicillin (A) can also cause C. difficile infection, but clindamycin is more strongly associated. Chloramphenicol (B) and vancomycin (C) are less commonly associated with pseudomembranous enterocolitis compared to clindamycin.
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Which of the following drugs valuable in the treatment of edema and metabolic alkalosis?
- A. Digoxin
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Dobutamine
- D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acetazolamide. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that helps in the treatment of edema and metabolic alkalosis by promoting diuresis and increasing renal excretion of bicarbonate. It is effective in treating conditions associated with fluid retention and alkalosis.
A: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart conditions like heart failure and atrial fibrillation, not edema or metabolic alkalosis.
B: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used for conditions like hypertension and heart failure, but not specifically for metabolic alkalosis.
C: Dobutamine is a beta-adrenergic agonist used in acute heart failure or shock situations, not for edema or alkalosis.
In summary, Acetazolamide is the correct choice as it directly targets edema and metabolic alkalosis by affecting renal excretion of bicarbonate. Other options are
Which of the following drug/(s) that is /are used to treat chronic hepatitis B?
- A. Lamivudine
- B. Human interferon α
- C. Amantadine
- D. (a) and (b) are correct
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because both Lamivudine and Human interferon α are commonly used to treat chronic hepatitis B. Lamivudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor that helps inhibit viral replication. Human interferon α is a type of immunomodulatory drug that boosts the immune system to fight the virus. Amantadine (choice C) is not typically used for treating hepatitis B, making it incorrect. Therefore, the combination of Lamivudine and Human interferon α (choice D) is the most appropriate treatment option for chronic hepatitis B.
When performing a genitourinary assessment on a 16-year-old male adolescent, the nurse notices a swelling in the scrotum that increases with increased intra-abdominal pressure and decreases when he is lying down. The patient complains of pain when straining. The nurse knows that this description is most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia.
- A. Femoral.
- B. Incisional.
- C. Direct inguinal.
- D. Indirect inguinal.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Indirect inguinal hernia. In an indirect inguinal hernia, the swelling in the scrotum increases with increased intra-abdominal pressure due to the herniation of abdominal contents through the internal inguinal ring. The swelling decreases when lying down because the contents reduce back into the abdominal cavity. Pain with straining is also characteristic of an indirect inguinal hernia.
A: Femoral hernia presents as a bulge in the upper thigh and is more common in females.
B: Incisional hernia occurs at the site of a previous surgical incision and is not typically affected by intra-abdominal pressure.
C: Direct inguinal hernia protrudes directly through the abdominal wall and is typically not palpable in the scrotum.
You are providing care for a patient with reflex urinary incontinence. Which action is appropriately delegated to the new LPN/LVN?
- A. Teach the patient bladder emptying by the Credé method.
- B. Demonstrate how to perform intermittent self-catheterization.
- C. Discuss the side effects of bethanechol chloride (Urecholine).
- D. Reinforce the importance of proper handwashing to prevent infection.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because demonstrating how to perform intermittent self-catheterization is within the scope of practice for an LPN/LVN. This task involves a specific skill set that can be taught and supervised by the LPN/LVN. It is essential for managing reflex urinary incontinence and maintaining bladder function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because teaching the patient bladder emptying by the Credé method (A) and discussing the side effects of bethanechol chloride (C) are tasks that require a higher level of nursing education and knowledge. Reinforcing the importance of proper handwashing (D) is a basic nursing task that can be performed by a nursing assistant or other unlicensed assistive personnel.
A 50-year-old woman reports that she has been experiencing hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. The nurse suspects that she is in the peri-menopausal stage. What is the primary reason for these symptoms?
- A. Decreased estrogen levels.
- B. Increased estrogen levels.
- C. Hormonal fluctuations.
- D. Psychological stress.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: I must clarify that the correct answer should be A: Decreased estrogen levels. In the peri-menopausal stage, a woman's ovaries produce less estrogen, leading to symptoms like hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. Option B is incorrect because increased estrogen levels are not typical during peri-menopause. Option C is vague and does not specifically address the primary reason for the symptoms. Option D, psychological stress, may exacerbate symptoms but is not the primary cause in this scenario.