Nokea
The nurse is instructing a client on taking her basal body temperature. The nurse understands that this test is used to determine which of the following?
- A. If the client's cervical mucus contains enough estrogen to support sperm motility
- B. If the client's temperature rises 1 to 5 days after the midcycle
- C. If surgical correction of uterine pathology is needed
- D. If the client is experiencing blockage of the uterine cavity and the fallopian tubes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: If the client's temperature rises 1 to 5 days after the midcycle. Basal body temperature is used to detect ovulation, which occurs when there is a rise in temperature after the midcycle. This rise indicates that ovulation has occurred. Monitoring basal body temperature is a natural family planning method.
A: Checking cervical mucus for estrogen levels is typically done to assess fertility but not related to basal body temperature.
C: Basal body temperature does not provide information on the need for surgical correction of uterine pathology.
D: Basal body temperature does not assess blockages in the uterine cavity or fallopian tubes.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client is admitted to the labor and birthing suite in early labor. On review of her prenatal history, the nurse determines that the client's pelvic shape as identified in the antepartum notes is the most favorable one for a vaginal birth. Which pelvic shape would the nurse have noted?
- A. platypelloid
- B. gynecoid
- C. android
- D. anthropoid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The gynecoid pelvic shape is the most favorable for vaginal birth due to its optimal dimensions and orientation for the passage of the fetus. The anthropoid pelvis is also favorable for vaginal birth, but it is not the most favorable shape. The android pelvis and platypelloid pelvis are less favorable for vaginal birth, with the android pelvis having slow descent of the fetal head and the platypelloid pelvis often requiring cesarean birth.
A nurse is teaching about sperm freezing for fertility preservation. What should be included in the education?
- A. Sperm freezing is only effective for men over 40 years old.
- B. Frozen sperm can be stored indefinitely with proper conditions.
- C. Sperm quality improves after freezing and thawing.
- D. Frozen sperm must be used within one year.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because frozen sperm can indeed be stored indefinitely with proper conditions such as constant low temperatures. This allows men to preserve their fertility for an extended period. Choice A is incorrect as sperm freezing is effective for men of all ages, not just those over 40. Choice C is incorrect because sperm quality may decline slightly after freezing and thawing. Choice D is incorrect as properly stored frozen sperm can maintain viability for many years, not just within one year.
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of preconception education. Which statement by the client indicates that additional education is needed?
- A. I know smoking is harmful in pregnancy, so I plan to quit soon. My husband has agreed to avoid smoking in my presence.
- B. I have started taking a daily prenatal vitamin with folic acid.
- C. My husband bought a small desk for his laptop computer.
- D. We plan to avoid the use of chemicals in our garden this year.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the statement about the husband buying a small desk for his laptop computer is irrelevant to preconception education. The focus of preconception education is on optimizing health before pregnancy, such as quitting smoking, taking prenatal vitamins, and avoiding harmful chemicals. The other choices (A, B, and D) all demonstrate an understanding of preconception health needs. Choice A shows awareness of the risks of smoking in pregnancy and a plan to quit. Choice B indicates the initiation of prenatal vitamin intake, particularly folic acid, which is crucial for preventing birth defects. Choice D highlights a proactive approach to environmental health by planning to avoid harmful chemicals in the garden.
A patient asks about the purpose of egg retrieval in IVF. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Egg retrieval removes immature eggs for storage.
- B. It collects mature eggs from the ovaries for fertilization in the lab.
- C. Egg retrieval monitors ovarian reserve.
- D. It is performed after implantation to confirm pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It collects mature eggs from the ovaries for fertilization in the lab.
Rationale:
1. Egg retrieval in IVF involves retrieving mature eggs from the woman's ovaries to be fertilized with sperm in a laboratory setting.
2. These fertilized eggs (embryos) are then transferred back into the uterus for potential implantation.
3. This process is crucial for successful IVF as it allows for controlled fertilization outside the body.
Summary of other choices:
A: Incorrect. Egg retrieval is not for storing immature eggs but for obtaining mature eggs for immediate fertilization.
C: Incorrect. Egg retrieval is not for monitoring ovarian reserve; this is typically done through other tests.
D: Incorrect. Egg retrieval occurs before implantation to collect eggs for fertilization, not after implantation.
Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
- A. Never conceived.
- B. Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
- C. Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
- D. Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because secondary infertility refers to the inability of a couple to conceive after having one or more children without any fertility issues. This situation indicates that the couple had a successful pregnancy in the past but is now facing difficulties conceiving again.
A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Never conceived - This does not align with the definition of secondary infertility as it involves a previous successful pregnancy.
B: Had repeated spontaneous abortions - This refers to recurrent pregnancy loss, not secondary infertility.
C: Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse - This describes primary infertility, not secondary infertility.