Nokea
The nurse is reviewing discharge plans with a client who is recovering from a cervical biopsy. Which statements indicate good understanding by the client? (Select all that apply.)
- A. “I can return to work this afternoon.”
- B. “I cannot carry my toddler for 2 weeks.”
- C. “I cannot douche until the biopsy site is healed
- D. “I need to wait for about 2 weeks to have intercourse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client understanding that they cannot carry their toddler for 2 weeks after a cervical biopsy is crucial to avoid strain and potential complications. Lifting heavy objects can place stress on the biopsy site, leading to bleeding or infection. This restriction promotes proper healing and reduces the risk of complications.
Summary:
A: Returning to work immediately may not allow sufficient time for recovery and could lead to complications.
C: Douching can introduce bacteria to the biopsy site, increasing the risk of infection.
D: Waiting for about 2 weeks before having intercourse is important to prevent trauma to the biopsy site.
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Inflammation of joints
- A. Arthritis
- B. Osteomyelitis
- C. Chondritis
- D. Chondritis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Arthritis. Arthritis specifically refers to inflammation of joints, making it the most appropriate choice. Osteomyelitis (B) is an infection of the bone, not joints. Chondritis (C) is inflammation of cartilage, not joints. The duplicate choice of Chondritis (D) is incorrect.
A drug is given that affects the initial phases of spermatogenesis to aid in a patient’s infertility complaints. How much time would it take for the effects of this drug to be seen?
- A. 4.6 days
- B. 16 days
- C. 22 days
- D. 86 days
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (86 days) because spermatogenesis is a process that takes around 74 days from the initial division of spermatogonia to the release of mature spermatozoa. The drug affecting the initial phases of spermatogenesis would take at least one full cycle of spermatogenesis to show its effects, which is around 74 days. Therefore, it would take approximately 86 days for the effects of the drug to be seen.
Choice A (4.6 days) is too short for spermatogenesis to complete, so the effects of the drug would not be observable in this time frame. Choice B (16 days) and Choice C (22 days) are also insufficient for a full cycle of spermatogenesis to occur, hence the effects of the drug would not be evident within these durations.
Female gonads are called
- A. Testes
- B. Vagina
- C. Cervix
- D. Ovaries
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ovaries. Female gonads are responsible for producing eggs and releasing hormones like estrogen and progesterone. The other choices, A: Testes, are male gonads responsible for producing sperm. B: Vagina is a part of the female reproductive system but not a gonad. C: Cervix is a part of the female reproductive system that connects the uterus to the vagina, but it is not a gonad. Therefore, the correct answer is ovaries as they are the female gonads responsible for egg production and hormone secretion.
Which patients meet the criteria for Chlamydia screening?
- A. A 40-year-old woman who is sexually active and uses barrier protection consistently
- B. A 15-year-old female woman who is sexually active with one partner
- C. A 22-year-old woman who is sexually active and uses barrier protection inconsistently
- D. A 23-year-old woman who has had four sexual partners in the last 3 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the 22-year-old woman who is sexually active and uses barrier protection inconsistently is at higher risk for Chlamydia infection. Inconsistent use of barrier protection increases the likelihood of exposure to the infection. The other choices (A, B, D) do not specifically mention increased risk factors for Chlamydia. Choice A mentions consistent barrier protection, which lowers the risk. Choice B mentions having one partner, which may reduce the risk compared to multiple partners. Choice D mentions having multiple partners, which increases the risk, but it does not mention current risky behavior like inconsistent barrier protection.
The testicle vascularization:
- A. the arterial one is provided by the gonadal artery, a branch off the abdominal aorta;
- B. the venous one is tributary to the internal iliac vein;
- C. the arterial one is provided by the testicular artery, a branch off the internal iliac artery;
- D. the venous one is tributary to the inferior vena cava;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the arterial vascularization of the testicle is indeed provided by the gonadal artery, which is a branch off the abdominal aorta. This is anatomically accurate as the gonadal artery supplies blood to the testicles.
Choice B is incorrect because the venous drainage of the testicle is to the testicular vein, which drains into the inferior vena cava, not the internal iliac vein as stated in option B.
Choice C is incorrect because the testicular artery, not the internal iliac artery, is responsible for the arterial supply to the testicle.
Choice D is incorrect because the venous drainage of the testicle is not tributary to the inferior vena cava; instead, it drains into the left renal vein.