Nokea
What is the purpose of progesterone in supporting early pregnancy?
- A. To increase fetal growth rates.
- B. To maintain the uterine lining and prevent menstrual shedding.
- C. To stimulate ovulation during the menstrual cycle.
- D. To regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining to support implantation and prevent menstrual shedding. Progesterone prepares the uterus for the potential implantation of a fertilized egg by thickening the endometrium. If fertilization occurs, progesterone continues to support the pregnancy by ensuring the uterine lining remains intact to provide a nurturing environment for the developing embryo. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because progesterone's main function in early pregnancy is not to increase fetal growth rates, stimulate ovulation, or regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is counseling a couple about infertility. Which piece of assessment data may affect the woman's ability to become pregnant?
- A. The woman exercises three times a week for 1 hour.
- B. The couple each consumes a glass of wine each night.
- C. The couple has a sauna in their backyard.
- D. The male partner works on heavy machinery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Having a sauna in the backyard may affect the woman's ability to become pregnant due to the potential negative impact of excessive heat on sperm production and ovulation. Saunas can raise body temperature, which can be harmful to sperm and reduce fertility.
Explanation of other choices:
A: Regular exercise is generally beneficial for fertility and overall health, so this is unlikely to significantly impact the woman's ability to become pregnant.
B: Consuming a glass of wine each night in moderation is not likely to have a significant impact on fertility unless it leads to excessive alcohol consumption.
D: Working on heavy machinery may pose risks to male fertility due to potential exposure to harmful chemicals or radiation, but this choice doesn't directly impact the woman's ability to become pregnant.
What is the role of pelvic ultrasound in infertility evaluation?
- A. To evaluate ovarian reserve directly.
- B. To visualize uterine and ovarian structures.
- C. To measure hormone levels in the bloodstream.
- D. To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, as pelvic ultrasound allows visualization of uterine and ovarian structures. This is essential in assessing conditions like fibroids, polyps, ovarian cysts, and structural abnormalities that may affect fertility. Ovarian reserve evaluation (A) involves separate tests like AMH levels. Hormone levels (C) are typically measured through blood tests. Genetic abnormalities in embryos (D) are usually identified through preimplantation genetic testing, not pelvic ultrasound.
A 44-year-old woman presents with an unexpected pregnancy. She asks the nurse, 'Is my baby going to have a birth defect? My third cousin has Down syndrome.' What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Tell the patient she is at risk for gene mutation because a birth defect in a distant relative places the woman at increased risk.
- B. Discuss the potential risk for intrauterine growth retardation due to the mother's advanced age.
- C. Discuss the patient's situation with the physician to ask for a referral to high-risk obstetrics.
- D. Discuss the potential risk for a chromosomal abnormality based on the patient's advanced age.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because advanced maternal age (AMA), generally defined as 35 years or older, is a well-known risk factor for chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome.
Step 2: Down syndrome is more common in babies born to mothers over the age of 35 due to the increased likelihood of errors in cell division during egg development.
Step 3: Given the patient's age of 44, she falls into the category of AMA and is at an increased risk for chromosomal abnormalities in her baby.
Step 4: Option A is incorrect as the risk is not solely based on gene mutation but rather on the increased chance of chromosomal abnormalities due to age.
Step 5: Option B is incorrect as it focuses on intrauterine growth retardation, which is not directly related to the patient's query about birth defects.
Step 6: Option C is incorrect as a referral to high-risk obstetrics may not be necessary solely based on the patient's
An infertile man is being treated with Viagra (sildenafil citrate) for erectile dysfunction (ED). Which of the following is a contraindication for this medication?
- A. Preexisting diagnosis of herpes simplex 2.
- B. Nitroglycerin ingestion for angina pectoris.
- C. Retinal damage from type I diabetes mellitus.
- D. Postsurgical care for resection of the prostate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Viagra interacts dangerously with nitroglycerin, potentially causing severe hypotension.
Cervical mucus at ovulation should be:
- A. Thin and slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 cm.
- B. Cloudy with a mild odor and should stretch to at least 6 cm.
- C. Thick, clear, and of a large amount.
- D. Thin and tinged with a small amount of blood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cervical mucus at ovulation should be thin and slippery, and should stretch to at least 6 cm. This type of mucus indicates the fertile window and the best time for conception.