Nokea
When are HCG levels the highest?
- A. before pregnancy
- B. first days of gestation
- C. second month of pregnancy
- D. end of pregnancy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: second month of pregnancy. During the second month of pregnancy, HCG levels typically peak and reach their highest levels. This is because HCG is produced by the placenta, which develops and grows rapidly during this stage of pregnancy. Higher HCG levels during this time help support the developing fetus and maintain the pregnancy.
A: before pregnancy - HCG levels are not present before pregnancy.
B: first days of gestation - HCG levels are detectable shortly after implantation, but they continue to rise and peak in the second month.
D: end of pregnancy - HCG levels typically decrease towards the end of pregnancy as the placenta matures and other hormones take over to support the pregnancy.
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While giving a history, a patient reports having a weak urinary stream and feeling that his bladder is not empty after urination. Based on these data, what finding does the nurse anticipate upon examination?
- A. An enlarged prostate gland palpated on the anterior wall of the rectum
- B. An indirect hernia palpated through the inguinal ring when the patient coughs
- C. The foreskin of the penis cannot be returned to position after retraction behind the glans
- D. A nodular prostate gland palpated on the posterior wall of the rectum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An enlarged prostate gland palpated on the anterior wall of the rectum. In this case, the patient's weak urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying are classic symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). During a rectal examination, an enlarged prostate gland can be felt as a smooth, rubbery, and symmetrically enlarged mass on the anterior wall of the rectum. This finding correlates with the patient's urinary symptoms, indicating obstruction of the urethra by the enlarged prostate.
Choice B is incorrect because an indirect hernia is not typically associated with urinary symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it describes paraphimosis, a condition where the foreskin cannot be returned to its original position. Choice D is incorrect as a nodular prostate gland palpated on the posterior wall of the rectum is more characteristic of prostate cancer rather than BPH, which is typically felt on the anterior wall.
Identify the CORRECT strategy to achieve external fertilization.
- A. Female organism will modify its body parts to receive male gametes.
- B. Fertilization must occur at night to avoid predators.
- C. Eggs and sperm must be shed simultaneously into water.
- D. The release of eggs is more frequent than the release of sperm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct strategy for external fertilization is to have eggs and sperm shed simultaneously into water. This allows the gametes to meet and fertilize outside of the organism's body. This method is effective in aquatic environments where the chances of gametes coming into contact are increased. Choice A is incorrect as it describes internal fertilization. Choice B is irrelevant to the process of external fertilization. Choice D is incorrect as the frequency of egg and sperm release does not determine the success of external fertilization.
The nurse is assessing a client for reproductive health problems. What would be the priority assessments? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Bleeding
- B. Pain
- C. Sexual orientation
- D. Masses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Bleeding is a priority assessment because it can indicate serious reproductive health issues such as ectopic pregnancy or cervical cancer. Pain and masses are important assessments, but bleeding takes precedence due to its potential urgency. Sexual orientation is not a priority assessment for reproductive health problems as it does not directly impact the client's immediate physical health.
Male sex chromosomes are represented as ________.
- A. XX
- B. XO
- C. XY
- D. XZ
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is C: XY. In humans, males have one X and one Y chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes. This combination determines an individual's sex. Choice A (XX) is incorrect because it represents the genotype for females. Choice B (XO) is incorrect as it denotes Turner syndrome in females with only one X chromosome. Choice D (XZ) is not a valid representation of male sex chromosomes in humans.
Why is milk produced only after delivery, not before?
- A. Levels of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone are too low during pregnancy to support milk production
- B. High levels of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy suppress milk production
- C. The alveolar cells of the breast do not reach maturity until after delivery
- D. High levels of oxytocin are required for milk production to begin, and oxytocin is not secreted until the baby stimulates the nipple
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - High levels of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy suppress milk production.
Rationale:
1. Progesterone and estrogen levels are high during pregnancy to maintain the uterine lining and support fetal development.
2. These hormones inhibit the action of prolactin, the hormone responsible for milk production.
3. As a result, the mammary glands are prevented from producing milk until after delivery when progesterone and estrogen levels drop.
4. Once these hormone levels decrease, prolactin can initiate milk production in response to the baby's demand for feeding.
Summary of other choices:
A: Levels of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone do not directly impact milk production during pregnancy.
C: Alveolar cells of the breast may have some developmental changes during pregnancy, but it is not the primary reason for milk production post-delivery.
D: Oxytocin is involved in milk ejection, not milk production, and its release is