When assessing a newborn infant's genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant's mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply:
- A. This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks.
- B. This finding could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician.
- C. We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to ensure that they are within normal limits.
- D. We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Neonatal genital engorgement is a common finding due to maternal hormones.
Step 2: Maternal hormones can cause swelling of the labia majora, clitoris, and thickening of the hymen.
Step 3: This physiological phenomenon typically resolves within a few weeks post-birth.
Step 4: The nurse should reassure the mother that this is a normal finding in newborns.
Summary: Choice A is correct because it aligns with the normal physiological process, while the other options suggest unnecessary interventions or monitoring that are not indicated in this situation.
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Which antibiotics should be avoided in patients of liver disease?:
- A. Tetracycline
- B. Cotrimoxazole
- C. Cephalexin
- D. Ethanbutol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetracycline. Tetracycline should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to its potential hepatotoxicity. Tetracycline is primarily metabolized in the liver and can exacerbate liver damage in patients with pre-existing liver conditions. Cotrimoxazole, Cephalexin, and Ethambutol are generally considered safe for use in patients with liver disease as they are not known to cause significant liver toxicity.
Which of the following drug/(s) that is /are used to treat chronic hepatitis B?
- A. Lamivudine
- B. Human interferon α
- C. Amantadine
- D. (a) and (b) are correct
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because both Lamivudine and Human interferon α are commonly used to treat chronic hepatitis B. Lamivudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor that helps inhibit viral replication. Human interferon α is a type of immunomodulatory drug that boosts the immune system to fight the virus. Amantadine (choice C) is not typically used for treating hepatitis B, making it incorrect. Therefore, the combination of Lamivudine and Human interferon α (choice D) is the most appropriate treatment option for chronic hepatitis B.
A nurse is examining a 40-year-old woman for signs of ovarian cancer. She has a family history of ovarian cancer. Which statement does the nurse know to be true regarding ovarian cancer?
- A. Ovarian cancer often does not show symptoms until late stages.
- B. The Pap smear test detects the presence of ovarian cancer.
- C. Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have an annual pelvic ultrasound.
- D. Women over the age of 50 should be screened for ovarian cancer annually.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ovarian cancer often does not show symptoms until late stages. This is true because ovarian cancer is often asymptomatic in the early stages, making it difficult to detect. By the time symptoms appear, the cancer is usually at an advanced stage.
Choice B is incorrect because the Pap smear test is used to detect cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Choice C is incorrect because while some high-risk women may benefit from periodic ultrasound screenings, it is not recommended for all women at high risk. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific annual screening recommendation for ovarian cancer in women over the age of 50.
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- A. Dapsone
- B. Rifampicin
- C. Clofazimine
- D. None of these
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Dapsone is a known cause of hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency due to oxidative stress.
2. Dapsone triggers the release of reactive oxygen species, leading to hemolysis in G6PD-deficient individuals.
3. Rifampicin and clofazimine do not have a direct association with hemolysis in G6PD deficiency.
4. Option D is incorrect as dapsone is a well-established drug associated with hemolysis in G6PD-deficient individuals.
The highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous * enterocolitis has been noted with the use of:
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Chloramphenicol
- C. Vancomycin
- D. Clindamycin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is associated with a high incidence of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis due to its strong impact on disrupting the normal gut flora, leading to overgrowth of Clostridium difficile. This bacterium can produce toxins causing inflammation and pseudomembrane formation in the colon. Ampicillin (A) can also cause C. difficile infection, but clindamycin is more strongly associated. Chloramphenicol (B) and vancomycin (C) are less commonly associated with pseudomembranous enterocolitis compared to clindamycin.