Nokea
Which of the following fungicidal drug that acts by inhibiting fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme and is the drug of choice for onychomycosis of the toe nails in 56 year old woman with diabetes?
- A. Griseofulvin
- B. Terbinafine
- C. Itraconazole
- D. Amphotericin B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Terbinafine is a fungicidal drug that inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme, disrupting fungal cell membrane synthesis.
Step 2: Onychomycosis of toenails is a common fungal infection that terbinafine is specifically effective against.
Step 3: The patient being a 56-year-old woman with diabetes may require a drug with good efficacy and safety profile, making terbinafine an appropriate choice.
Step 4: Griseofulvin (A) works by disrupting microtubule function, not inhibiting squalene epoxidase. Itraconazole (C) is an azole antifungal that inhibits ergosterol synthesis, not squalene epoxidase. Amphotericin B (D) is a polyene antifungal used for systemic mycoses, not onychomycosis.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
- A. Pediculosis pubis.
- B. Contact dermatitis.
- C. HPV.
- D. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Herpes simplex virus type 2. The presence of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia, along with symptoms of vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever, are classic signs of genital herpes caused by HSV-2. The inguinal lymphadenopathy further supports the diagnosis. Herpes simplex virus is known for causing painful vesicular lesions in the genital area.
Choice A, Pediculosis pubis, is incorrect as it presents with itching and nits (eggs) attached to the hair shafts, not vesicles. Choice B, Contact dermatitis, typically presents with red, itchy, and inflamed skin due to an allergic reaction. Choice C, HPV, does not typically present with vesicles but rather with warts or abnormal cell changes on the skin or mucous membranes.
A patient with a sacral pressure ulcer has had a
- A. The risk of developing a vaginal yeast infection as a urinary catheter inserte
- B. As a result of this new consequent of antibiotic therapy intervention, the nurse should prioritize what nursing
- C. The need to expect a heavy menstrual period diagnosis in the patients plan of care?
- D. Impaired physical mobility related to presence of an
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (E):
1. The prompt mentions a patient with a sacral pressure ulcer.
2. Considering the context, the most relevant issue would be wound care and prevention of pressure ulcers.
3. Option E is the only choice related to wound care and prevention, indicating the correct focus for the nurse.
4. Choices A, B, C, and D are unrelated to the primary concern of managing the sacral pressure ulcer.
5. Therefore, E is the correct answer as it aligns with the patient's immediate care needs.
Which of the following components of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is not correctly paired with its function?
- A. Renin – cleavage of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
- B. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) – activation of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
- C. Aldosterone – sodium and water reabsorption
- D. Angiotensin II – vasoconstriction and decrease of blood pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Angiotensin II does not decrease blood pressure; it actually increases blood pressure through vasoconstriction. Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, and ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Aldosterone acts on the kidneys to increase sodium and water reabsorption, leading to increased blood volume and pressure. Therefore, D is incorrect because Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure.
A 23 year old pregnant woman has UTI and presents to the ER with fever, frequency and urgency. Which of the following antibiotics can cause potential harm to her fetus?
- A. Nitrofurantoin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Gentamycin
- D. Cephalexin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gentamycin. Gentamycin is known to have potential harmful effects on the fetus, such as causing hearing loss and kidney damage. This is due to its ability to cross the placental barrier. Amoxicillin (B) and Cephalexin (D) are both considered safe for use in pregnancy and are commonly prescribed for UTIs. Nitrofurantoin (A) is typically avoided in the third trimester due to the risk of hemolytic anemia in the newborn, but it is considered safe earlier in pregnancy. Therefore, Gentamycin is the correct choice as it poses a higher risk to the fetus compared to the other antibiotics.
Imipenem has the broadest spectrum of activity currently available to beta-lactams. This include antimicrobial activity against the following organisms EXCEPT:
- A. Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
- C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Imipenem, a carbapenem antibiotic, has broad-spectrum activity against Gram-positive, Gram-negative, anaerobic, and some atypical bacteria. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is an atypical bacteria lacking a cell wall, making it resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics like imipenem. Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are all susceptible to imipenem due to their cell wall composition.