Nokea
Which of the following is a protein hormone?
- A. Oxytocin
- B. Insulin
- C. TSH
- D. ADH
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin. Insulin is a protein hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates blood sugar levels. Proteins are large molecules made up of amino acids, and insulin fits this definition. Oxytocin (A) is a peptide hormone, not a protein. TSH (C) and ADH (D) are both peptide hormones as well, not proteins. In summary, insulin is the only option that fits the criteria of being a protein hormone.
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Identify a gland that is controlled by an anterior pituitary hormone.
- A. pancreas
- B. parathyroid
- C. adrenal medulla
- D. ovary
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: ovary. The anterior pituitary gland secretes follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) that regulate the function of the ovaries. FSH stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles, while LH triggers ovulation and stimulates the production of progesterone and estrogen. The pancreas (A) is mainly controlled by insulin and glucagon from the pancreas itself. The parathyroid gland (B) is regulated by parathyroid hormone (PTH) secreted by the parathyroid glands. The adrenal medulla (C) is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system, not by anterior pituitary hormones.
Which of the following does not act as a second messenger in second-messenger systems of hormone action?
- A. cyclic AMP
- B. calmodulin
- C. cyclic GMP
- D. inositol triphosphate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Calmodulin is not a second messenger but a calcium-binding protein that regulates various cellular processes. Cyclic AMP, cyclic GMP, and inositol triphosphate are all second messengers involved in hormone action. Calmodulin acts downstream of these second messengers to mediate their effects.
Bronzing:
- A. always accompanies hyperglycemia.
- B. is the most prominent symptom of Cushing syndrome.
- C. is characteristic of chronic adrenal cortical insufficiency (Addison’s disease).
- D. is a consequence of ADH insufficiency.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Bronzing is a characteristic symptom of chronic adrenal cortical insufficiency (Addison's disease) due to increased production of melanin. In this condition, the adrenal glands do not produce enough steroid hormones, leading to skin hyperpigmentation. This differs from hyperglycemia (choice A), Cushing syndrome (choice B), and ADH insufficiency (choice D), which do not directly cause bronzing. Therefore, the correct choice is C.
A floor nurse pages you about a patient who is having chest pain. You order an electrocardiogram and rush to see the patient. He describes the pain as tight pressure and is demonstrably sweating and gasping for air. The ECG comes back with acute ST-segment elevations in inferior leads, and you diagnose a myocardial infarction. You start giving the patient oxygen and give him sublingual nitroglycerin and morphine for pain. You also give him another medication, which you have read may prolong his survival in this situation. What class of medication is it?
- A. β-Blocker
- B. α-Agonist
- C. Muscarinic agonist
- D. Neuromuscular blocker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: β-Blocker. β-Blockers are indicated in the management of myocardial infarction as they help reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate, blood pressure, and contractility. This results in less strain on the heart muscle and can improve survival outcomes. Additionally, β-blockers can prevent arrhythmias and reduce the risk of recurrent infarction. In this scenario, where the patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction with ST-segment elevations, the use of a β-blocker is crucial in managing the condition and improving the patient's prognosis.
Summary of other choices:
B: α-Agonist - Not indicated in the management of myocardial infarction.
C: Muscarinic agonist - Not indicated in the management of myocardial infarction.
D: Neuromuscular blocker - Not indicated in the management of myocardial infarction.
A patient presents with weight loss, polyphagia, polydypsia, increased tiredness, vomiting, and hyperventilation. He is young and his parents are also diagnosed with the same disease. Which of the following is the most common etiological factor associated with this disease seen in older populations?
- A. Smoking
- B. Obesity
- C. Hypertension
- D. Infections
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. In the given case, the patient most likely has type 1 diabetes, which commonly presents with the symptoms described. The genetic predisposition mentioned (parents diagnosed) also suggests type 1 diabetes. Obesity is a well-known risk factor for type 2 diabetes, which is more common in older populations. Therefore, the most common etiological factor associated with diabetes in older populations is obesity.
A: Smoking is a risk factor for various diseases, but not typically associated with diabetes.
C: Hypertension is a common comorbidity with diabetes, but not a direct etiological factor.
D: Infections can sometimes trigger type 1 diabetes, but it is not the most common etiological factor associated with the disease in older populations.