Nokea
Which of the following is not part of the alimentary canal?
- A. Mouth
- B. Pharynx
- C. Larynx
- D. Oesophagus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Larynx. The alimentary canal is the digestive tract where food passes through. The larynx is not part of this pathway; it is part of the respiratory system, specifically involved in phonation and protecting the trachea during swallowing. The mouth, pharynx, and esophagus are all part of the alimentary canal, where food is ingested, swallowed, and transported to the stomach for digestion. Therefore, the larynx is the correct answer as it is not part of the digestive process.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which hormone is produced by the pancreas and acts on the liver to increase blood glucose levels?
- A. glucagon; liver
- B. melatonin; liver
- C. glucagon; kidney
- D. calcitonin; thyroid
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: glucagon is produced by the pancreas and acts on the liver to increase blood glucose levels. Glucagon triggers the liver to break down glycogen into glucose, releasing it into the bloodstream. Melatonin is a hormone produced by the pineal gland and is not involved in glucose regulation. Glucagon does not act on the kidney but specifically targets the liver. Calcitonin is produced by the thyroid gland and plays a role in calcium regulation, not glucose metabolism.
The superior suprarenal artery arises from:
- A. Abdominal aorta
- B. Inferior phrenic artery
- C. Renal artery
- D. Superior mesenteric artery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inferior phrenic artery. The superior suprarenal artery arises from the inferior phrenic artery, which supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The inferior phrenic artery originates from the abdominal aorta, near the celiac trunk. It is important to note that the adrenal glands receive blood supply from multiple sources, including the inferior phrenic artery. The other choices (A: Abdominal aorta, C: Renal artery, D: Superior mesenteric artery) do not directly supply blood to the adrenal glands, making them incorrect options.
A nurse working in an outpatient clinic plans a screening program for diabetes. What recommendations for screening should be included?
- A. OGTT for all minority populations every year
- B. FPG for all individuals at age 45 and then every 3 years
- C. Testing people under the age of 21 for islet cell antibodies
- D. Testing for type 2 diabetes in all overweight or obese individuals
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) should be tested for all individuals at age 45 and every 3 years thereafter.
Testosterone is best described as:
- A. virilizing.
- B. lactogenic.
- C. adenohypophyseal.
- D. pancreatic.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Testosterone is best described as virilizing because it is the primary male sex hormone responsible for the development of male characteristics such as facial hair, deep voice, and muscle mass. It plays a key role in virilization. The other choices, lactogenic, adenohypophyseal, and pancreatic, are incorrect because testosterone is not primarily associated with lactation, the anterior pituitary gland, or the pancreas.
A patient with mild iatrogenic Cushing syndrome is on an alternate-day regimen of corticosteroid therapy. What does the nurse explain to the patient about this regimen?
- A. It maintains normal adrenal hormone balance.
- B. It prevents ACTH release from the pituitary gland.
- C. It minimizes hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal suppression.
- D. It provides a more effective therapeutic effect of the drug.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alternate-day corticosteroid therapy minimizes hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression, which helps prevent long-term adrenal insufficiency.