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What is the purpose of intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) in IVF procedures?
- A. To allow multiple sperm to fertilize an egg for better results.
- B. To assist fertilization by injecting a single sperm directly into an egg.
- C. To ensure ovulation occurs during stimulation cycles.
- D. To bypass ovarian stimulation entirely.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, to assist fertilization by injecting a single sperm directly into an egg. In ICSI, a single sperm is carefully selected and injected into an egg to aid fertilization, particularly in cases of male infertility. This method ensures that fertilization occurs successfully by bypassing natural barriers. Choice A is incorrect as multiple sperm fertilizing an egg can lead to genetic abnormalities. Choice C is incorrect as ovulation is induced before egg retrieval, not during stimulation cycles. Choice D is incorrect as ovarian stimulation is necessary to produce multiple eggs for retrieval.
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Of the following karyotype results, which indicates a finding of Turner syndrome?
- A. 46 XY
- B. 46 YY
- C. 46 XX
- D. 46 X
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Certainly. The correct answer is D (46 X) for Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome is characterized by a missing or partially missing X chromosome in females. Therefore, a karyotype of 45,X or 46,X would indicate Turner syndrome. Choice A (46 XY) is a normal male karyotype, B (46 YY) is not a valid karyotype, and C (46 XX) is a normal female karyotype.
A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is
- A. "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
- B. "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
- C. "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
- D. "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it acknowledges the uncertainty in diagnosing infertility, which can remain unexplained in about 20% of couples even after testing. This response is the best because it provides realistic information without giving false hope or making assumptions.
Choice A is incorrect because it asserts that the tests will definitely identify the problem, which is not always the case. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the problem will be resolved after testing, which may not be true. Choice D is incorrect as it jumps to the conclusion of adoption without addressing the uncertainty of infertility testing.
During fertility evaluation, a patient asks about tubal factor infertility. What should the nurse explain?
- A. It is caused by hormonal imbalances affecting the ovaries.
- B. It results from blockages or damage to the fallopian tubes.
- C. It is unrelated to previous infections or surgeries.
- D. It does not impact the chances of natural conception.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because tubal factor infertility is primarily due to blockages or damage in the fallopian tubes, which can prevent the egg from meeting the sperm for fertilization. Blockages can result from infections, surgeries, or conditions like endometriosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hormonal imbalances affecting the ovaries, previous infections or surgeries, and impacts on natural conception are not the primary causes of tubal factor infertility.
A man has been instructed to make an appointment with the laboratory for sperm analysis. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Keep the sample in a cooler for transport.
- B. Deliver the sample to the laboratory within 1 hour of collection.
- C. Collect the sample during a period of frequent sexual activity.
- D. An acceptable collection method is withdrawal prior to ejaculation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because delivering the sample to the laboratory within 1 hour of collection ensures the sample is fresh and provides accurate results. Keeping the sample in a cooler (choice A) is unnecessary and may not be feasible. Collecting the sample during frequent sexual activity (choice C) can skew results. Withdrawal method (choice D) may not provide an adequate sample for analysis. Timing and freshness are crucial for accurate results.
A patient asks about intrauterine insemination (IUI) as a treatment option. What should the nurse explain?
- A. IUI involves placing washed sperm directly into the uterus.
- B. IUI bypasses the need for ovulation tracking.
- C. IUI eliminates the risk of multiple pregnancies.
- D. IUI guarantees fertilization.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because IUI involves placing washed sperm directly into the uterus, increasing the chances of fertilization. This process bypasses potential issues in the reproductive tract and brings sperm closer to the egg, enhancing the likelihood of conception. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as IUI still requires ovulation tracking, does not eliminate the risk of multiple pregnancies, and does not guarantee fertilization as it depends on various factors.