Nokea
A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of a delayed period and abdominal discomfort. The nurse suspects pregnancy. Which of the following is the earliest and most reliable sign of pregnancy?
- A. A missed period.
- B. Positive urine pregnancy test.
- C. Changes in breast size.
- D. Abdominal tenderness and bloating.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in breast size. This is because hormonal changes in early pregnancy can cause breast tenderness, swelling, and darkening of the areola. This typically occurs before a missed period or a positive urine pregnancy test. A missed period (choice A) is a common sign of pregnancy, but not the earliest. A positive urine pregnancy test (choice B) confirms pregnancy but may not be the earliest sign. Abdominal tenderness and bloating (choice D) can occur due to various reasons and are not specific to pregnancy. Therefore, changes in breast size are the earliest and most reliable sign of pregnancy in this scenario.
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The nurse is caring for a patient who is going to have to an older adult?
- A. If possible, try to drink at least 4 liters of fluid daily.
- B. Ensure that you avoid replacing water with other procedure? beverages.
- C. Discuss the patients diagnosis with the family.
- D. Remember to drink frequently, even if you dont feel
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because older adults are at higher risk for dehydration due to decreased thirst sensation. Reminding the patient to drink frequently, even if they don't feel thirsty, helps prevent dehydration. A: Drinking 4 liters of fluid daily may not be suitable for all older adults and can lead to water intoxication. B: Avoiding replacing water with other beverages is important, but it is not the most critical aspect of hydration in older adults. C: Discussing the patient's diagnosis with the family is unrelated to the immediate need for hydration in this scenario.
In which segment of the nephron is glucose reabsorbed?
- A. Loop of henle
- B. Collecting duct
- C. Distal convoluted tubule
- D. Proximal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proximal convoluted tubule. Glucose reabsorption primarily occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule due to the presence of specialized glucose transporters. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Glucose is filtered in the glomerulus and enters the renal tubules. 2. In the proximal convoluted tubule, glucose is reabsorbed through sodium-glucose cotransporters (SGLT) and facilitated diffusion via glucose transporters (GLUT). 3. The loop of Henle is primarily responsible for water and electrolyte reabsorption, not glucose. 4. The collecting duct mainly concentrates urine by reabsorbing water and electrolytes, not glucose. 5. The distal convoluted tubule is involved in fine-tuning electrolyte balance and regulating acid-base balance, not glucose reabsorption.
During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient's vestibule and expects to see the:
- A. Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice.
- B. Vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
- C. Urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands.
- D. Paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice. The vestibule is the area between the labia minora where the urethral meatus and vaginal orifice are located. This is important for the nurse to observe during an examination to assess the patient's genital health.
Choice B is incorrect because the vestibular (Bartholin) glands are not typically visible in the vestibule during an examination. Choice C is incorrect because the paraurethral (Skene) glands are not typically visible in the vestibule either. Choice D is incorrect because it combines the paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands, which are not typically visible in the vestibule during examination.
Which of the following antiviral drug most commonly used drug for prevention and treatment of CMV infections in the immunocompromised patients?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Indinavir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Foscarnet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Ganciclovir is the preferred antiviral for CMV infections due to its effectiveness against CMV.
2. It works by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase, stopping viral replication.
3. Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used for HIV, not CMV.
4. Amantadine is used for influenza A virus, not CMV.
5. Foscarnet is an alternative for CMV if ganciclovir is not tolerated.
Which of the following new drug is indicated in managing SIADH, non – peptide and competitive antagonist of ADH’s water sparing effects in the collecting ducts of nephron?
- A. Mannitol
- B. Bumetanide
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Conivaptan
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Conivaptan. Conivaptan is a non-peptide competitive antagonist of ADH, indicated for managing SIADH by blocking ADH's water-sparing effects in the collecting ducts. Mannitol (A) is an osmotic diuretic used for reducing intracranial pressure, not specifically for SIADH. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema. Spironolactone (C) is a potassium-sparing diuretic used for conditions like hypertension and heart failure, not specifically for SIADH.