Nokea
A nurse is assessing a patient's risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be:
- A. You know that it's important to use condoms for protection, right?
- B. Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?
- C. Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?
- D. You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren't you?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?" This question directly assesses the patient's behavior regarding condom use, providing specific information about their risk of contracting STIs. Choice A assumes knowledge without assessing behavior. Choice C assumes the patient already has an STI. Choice D assumes awareness without assessing behavior. Choice B is the most appropriate as it focuses on the specific preventive measure of condom use.
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Which of the following diuretics needs close monitoring with use of * potassium sparing diuretics such as spironolactone?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Captopril
- C. Verapamil
- D. Hydrochlorothiazid
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, which can be exacerbated when used with potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. This combination can lead to hyperkalemia, necessitating close monitoring of potassium levels.
B: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, not a diuretic.
C: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, not a diuretic.
D: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can also cause potassium depletion, but it does not specifically need close monitoring when used with potassium-sparing diuretics.
A 40 year old man is HIV positive with CD4 count of 200/ cu.mm . After 2 months of therapy, he develops a peripheral WBC count of 1000 and hemoglobin of 9. Which of the following drugs most likely cause d this hematologic abnormality?
- A. Zidovudine
- B. Acyclovir
- C. Foscarnet
- D. Amantadine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zidovudine. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased white blood cell and red blood cell counts. In this case, the patient's peripheral WBC count of 1000 and low hemoglobin after starting therapy are indicative of hematologic abnormalities consistent with zidovudine use. Acyclovir, Foscarnet, and Amantadine do not typically cause bone marrow suppression and are not associated with the hematologic abnormalities seen in this patient.
Which of the following antiviral drug most commonly used drug for prevention and treatment of CMV infections in the immunocompromised patients?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Indinavir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Foscarnet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Ganciclovir is the preferred antiviral for CMV infections due to its effectiveness against CMV.
2. It works by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase, stopping viral replication.
3. Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used for HIV, not CMV.
4. Amantadine is used for influenza A virus, not CMV.
5. Foscarnet is an alternative for CMV if ganciclovir is not tolerated.
The nurse is providing patient teaching about an erectile dysfunction drug. One of the drugs potential side effects is prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation, which is known as:
- A. Orchitis.
- B. Strictur
- C. Priapism.
- D. Phimosis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Define priapism - Priapism is a prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation.
Step 2: Link to the drug side effect - The question mentions a potential side effect of an erectile dysfunction drug, which is priapism.
Step 3: Eliminate other choices - Orchitis is inflammation of the testicle, stricture is a narrowing of a tube or passage, and phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin. These do not match the description of priapism.
Step 4: Conclusion - The correct answer is C because it directly aligns with the described side effect and the other choices do not.
In planning care for Mrs. T., the nurse must recognize that slowed metabolism will also result in
- A. nausea
- B. oily hair
- C. tachycardia
- D. constipation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: constipation. Slowed metabolism can lead to decreased gastrointestinal motility, resulting in constipation. This occurs because the digestive system processes food more slowly, leading to less frequent bowel movements. Nausea (choice A) is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues or medication side effects. Oily hair (choice B) is typically related to hormonal imbalances or poor hygiene. Tachycardia (choice C) is an increased heart rate that is not directly linked to slowed metabolism.