Nokea
A woman in active labor demonstrates signs of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD), with the fetal head failing to descend despite strong contractions. What nursing action should be prioritized to address this abnormal labor presentation?
- A. Perform a pelvic exam to assess for CPD.
- B. Assist the mother into a hands-and-knees position.
- C. Administer intravenous oxytocin to augment contractions.
- D. Prepare for immediate instrumental delivery.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a woman in active labor demonstrates signs of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) with the fetal head failing to descend despite strong contractions, the nursing action that should be prioritized is to prepare for immediate instrumental delivery. CPD can lead to a prolonged and difficult labor, increasing the risks for both the mother and the fetus. In cases where the fetal head is not descending adequately and the mother's contractions are strong, instrumental delivery, like forceps or vacuum extraction, may be necessary to facilitate the safe delivery of the baby. It is important to act promptly to avoid potential complications associated with prolonged labor. Other actions, such as performing a pelvic exam, changing maternal positions, or administering oxytocin, may be considered but addressing the issue of CPD efficiently through instrumental delivery should take precedence in this scenario.
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The APPROPRIATE nursing diagnosis to protect the patient from further injury is, which of the following?
- A. Altered mucous membrane related to chemotherapy.
- B. Interrupted family processes related to life threatening i1lness of a family member.
- C. Fatigue related to disease process.
- D. Risk for injury related to thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Patients with thrombocytopenia are at risk for injury due to potential bleeding complications. Therefore, the appropriate nursing diagnosis to protect the patient from further injury in this case would be "Risk for injury related to thrombocytopenia." This nursing diagnosis allows the nurse to assess for signs of bleeding, implement interventions to prevent injury, and closely monitor the patient's platelet levels to prevent complications.
A patient is going for a coronary arterial by-pass graft (CABG) due to a 4 blocked arterial blood vessels. A surgical team has been formed with the cardiac surgeon as the head. Who is the member of the health team that prepares the pre-operative orders for the patient?
- A. Cardiologist
- B. Surgeon
- C. Anesthesiologist
- D. Medical Internist
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The member of the health team responsible for preparing pre-operative orders for a patient undergoing surgery, such as a coronary arterial bypass graft (CABG), is typically the anesthesiologist. Anesthesiologists are specialized physicians who are trained to administer anesthesia and manage the patient's well-being during surgery. They are responsible for assessing the patient's medical history, determining the appropriate anesthesia plan, and prescribing pre-operative medications. Cardiologists focus on diagnosing and treating heart conditions, surgeons perform the actual surgical procedure, and medical internists specialize in the diagnosis and non-surgical treatment of internal diseases. The anesthesiologist plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and comfort of the patient before, during, and after surgery.
A patient is complaining of urinary pain after being diagnosed with a urinary tract infection the previous day. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Administer ordered phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium).
- B. Administer ordered trimethoprim (Trimpex).
- C. Administer ordered bethanechol (Urecholine).
- D. Administer ordered acetaminophen (Tylenol) and a warm bath.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's best action in this situation would be to administer the ordered antibiotic trimethoprim (Trimpex). A urinary tract infection (UTI) requires antibiotic treatment to eliminate the bacterial infection causing the symptoms. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride is a urinary tract analgesic that can help relieve urinary pain but does not treat the infection itself. Bethanechol is a cholinergic medication used to treat urinary retention, not a UTI. Acetaminophen and a warm bath may help with some discomfort but do not address the underlying infection causing the urinary pain. Therefore, administering the prescribed antibiotic would be the most appropriate action to target the source of the patient's symptoms.
A postpartum client exhibits signs of postpartum psychosis, including hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized behavior. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Administering antipsychotic medication as ordered
- B. Encouraging the client to participate in group therapy sessions
- C. Providing education on coping skills and stress management
- D. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a postpartum client exhibits signs of postpartum psychosis such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized behavior, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately. Postpartum psychosis is a psychiatric emergency that requires prompt assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. The healthcare provider can determine the appropriate course of action, which may include hospitalization, medication management, and specialized psychiatric care. Delaying notification can lead to serious consequences for both the client and her infant, so timely intervention is essential in managing postpartum psychosis.
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage pancreatic cancer experiences severe abdominal pain. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?
- A. Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate pain.
- B. Initiate enteral nutrition to support nutritional needs.
- C. Recommend hot compresses or heating pads for abdominal comfort.
- D. Refer the patient to a gastroenterologist for evaluation and treatment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with severe abdominal pain due to end-stage pancreatic cancer, the priority intervention to manage their symptoms would be to provide adequate pain relief. Opioid analgesics are the cornerstone of pain management for cancer patients experiencing severe pain. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system, thereby reducing the perception of pain. Opioids are highly effective in managing cancer pain, including abdominal pain, and can significantly improve the patient's quality of life by providing relief from distressing symptoms. Therefore, administering opioid analgesics should be the nurse's primary intervention in this case to address the patient's severe abdominal pain. Initiating enteral nutrition, recommending hot compresses, or referring to a gastroenterologist may be relevant interventions depending on the patient's overall care plan but addressing the pain should be the immediate priority in this scenario.