Miss White, a known diabetic, is experiencing headache, weakness, irritability, lack of muscular coordination, and apprehension. The nurse realizes that these are early symptoms of
- A. diabetic ketoacidosis
- B. hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma (HHNK)
- C. microangiopathy
- D. hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: These are all early symptoms of hypoglycemia, which occurs when blood sugar drops too low.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of steroid hormones?
- A. catalyze cyclic AMP
- B. diffuse through the plasma membranes of target cells
- C. enter the nucleus
- D. activate genes to transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because steroid hormones are lipid-soluble, allowing them to easily diffuse through the plasma membranes of target cells. Once inside the cell, they bind to intracellular receptors to regulate gene expression. Choice A is incorrect because steroid hormones do not catalyze cyclic AMP; that is a function of peptide hormones. Choice C is incorrect because steroid hormones do not enter the nucleus directly but bind to intracellular receptors in the cytoplasm. Choice D is incorrect because while steroid hormones do activate genes to transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis, the initial step involves binding to receptors in the cytoplasm, not directly activating gene transcription.
Which is not a ductless gland?
- A. Adrenal
- B. Pituitary
- C. Thyroid
- D. Sweat
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sweat. Sweat glands are not considered ductless glands as they secrete sweat through ducts onto the skin surface. Adrenal, Pituitary, and Thyroid glands are all ductless endocrine glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. Adrenal glands produce hormones like cortisol and adrenaline, Pituitary gland secretes hormones that regulate various bodily functions, and Thyroid gland produces hormones that control metabolism. Therefore, sweat gland is the only option that does not fit the criteria of a ductless gland, making it the correct answer.
Mrs. Good, a diabetic, states that she has taken the oral hypoglycemic, phenformin hydrochloride (DBI), for years. From this information, the nurse knows that Mrs. Good
- A. has not been receiving close medical supervision
- B. has moderately severe diabetes
- C. has active beta-cell function
- D. will soon need to switch to insulin therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenformin has been largely discontinued due to safety concerns, and it suggests the patient may not be receiving proper diabetes management.
The release of oxytocin is controlled by _____ feedback.
- A. negative
- B. neutral
- C. positive
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: positive feedback. Oxytocin release is triggered by the positive feedback mechanism. When oxytocin is released in response to a stimulus, it further stimulates the release of more oxytocin, intensifying the effect. This continuous loop enhances the initial response, leading to a cascade effect. Negative feedback (choice A) works to maintain homeostasis by counteracting the initial stimulus, which is not the case for oxytocin release. Neutral feedback (choice B) does not play a significant role in regulating hormone release. Choice D is incomplete and irrelevant.
What gland is located just superior to the kidneys?
- A. Pituitary.
- B. Adrenal.
- C. Pancreas.
- D. ovaries
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adrenal. The adrenal glands are located just superior to the kidneys. They are responsible for producing important hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline. The pituitary gland (choice A) is located at the base of the brain, the pancreas (choice C) is located in the abdomen, and the ovaries (choice D) are located in the pelvic region. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location specified in the question.