Nokea
Terbutaline, magnesium sulfate, nifedipine, and indomethacin are all examples of which of these kinds of drug?
- A. Beta-2 agonist
- B. Tocolytic
- C. NSAID
- D. Eugeroic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These drugs are tocolytics (Choice B), used to delay preterm labor, making it correct. Terbutaline is a beta-2 agonist (Choice A) but fits under tocolytics, while nifedipine, magnesium sulfate, and indomethacin aren't NSAIDs (Choice C) or eugeroics (Choice D) uniformly, confirming B.
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Which of these ACE inhibitors contains a sulfhydryl moiety, the component responsible for its metallic taste?
- A. Perindopril
- B. Enalapril
- C. Fosinopril
- D. Captopril
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Captopril (Choice D) has a sulfhydryl group, causing a metallic taste, making it correct. Perindopril (Choice A), enalapril (Choice B), and fosinopril (Choice C) lack this moiety, avoiding this side effect, distinguishing D.
The nurse explains the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA's) schedule of controlled substances to the nursing assistant who asks, 'Do you ever get a prescription for Schedule I medications?' What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Schedule I medications have no medical use so they are not prescribed
- B. Schedule I medications have the lowest risk for abuse and do not require a prescription
- C. Schedule I medications are only prescribed in monitored units for patient safety
- D. Schedule I medications are found in antitussives and antidiarrheals sold over the counter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Schedule I drugs (A) have no medical use and aren't prescribed, per the text, making it the best response. Low risk (B) is Schedule V, monitored units (C) isn't standard, and OTC (D) is Schedule V, so A is correct.
Bempedoic Acid can be combined with which of the following?
- A. PCSK9 monoclonal antibodies
- B. Statins
- C. Inclisiran
- D. Ezetimibe
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: E' (B+D) is correct because bempedoic acid combines with statins and ezetimibe for synergistic LDL reduction, per guidelines. 'A' (PCSK9 mAbs) and 'C' (inclisiran) are possible but less common. Statins (low-dose due to myopathy risk) and ezetimibe enhance bempedoic acid's effect safely.
A 72-year-old female who is treated for hyperlipidemia with Pravastatin for the past 6 months. Her physician wishes to add an additional agent to block the absorption of exogenous cholesterol. Which of the following choices is the best option?
- A. Niacin
- B. Colesevelam
- C. Gemfibrozil
- D. Ezetimibe
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: D' is correct because ezetimibe blocks intestinal cholesterol absorption, complementing pravastatin's synthesis inhibition, per lipid guidelines. 'A' (niacin) lowers TG/VLDL. 'B' (colesevelam) binds bile acids, less direct. 'C' (gemfibrozil) targets TG. Ezetimibe's specific action on exogenous cholesterol is ideal.
A patient is about to receive a morning dose of digoxin and has an apical pulse of 53 beats/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first?
- A. Hold the dose
- B. Administer the dose as scheduled
- C. Notify the charge nurse of the findings
- D. Contact the provider for dose adjustment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin slows heart rate, and a pulse below 60 bpm (here, 53) indicates potential toxicity or overdose risk. Choice A (hold the dose) is correct as the first action to prevent harm, followed by notifying the provider. Choice B risks worsening bradycardia. Choice C delays action by notifying the charge nurse first. Choice D skips the immediate safety step. The answer key says C, but A is the priority per nursing protocol.